ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. Which of the following steps occurs first during hemostasis?
- A. Vascular spasm
- B. Platelet plug
- C. Coagulation
- D. Dissolution of the clot
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Vascular spasm is the initial step in hemostasis, where blood vessels constrict to reduce blood flow to the injured area. This constriction helps limit blood loss until further steps like platelet plug formation and coagulation can take place. Platelet plug formation and coagulation occur after the vascular spasm, making them incorrect choices. Dissolution of the clot happens much later in the healing process, after the injury has sufficiently healed.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client. Which of the following findings is not a manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis?
- A. Night sweats
- B. Low-grade fever
- C. Weight gain
- D. Blood in the sputum
Correct answer: Weight gain
Rationale:
3. In addition to antianxiety agents, which classification of drugs is commonly prescribed to treat anxiety and anxiety disorders?
- A. Antipsychotics
- B. Mood stabilizers
- C. Antidepressants
- D. Cholinesterase inhibitors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Antidepressants, especially selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), are frequently used in the treatment of anxiety disorders. These medications help alleviate symptoms by affecting neurotransmitters in the brain associated with mood regulation and anxiety.
4. The PACU nurse will maintain postoperative T and A client in what position?
- A. Supine with neck hyperextended and supported with pillow
- B. Prone with the head on pillow and turned to the side
- C. Semi-fowler’s with neck flexed
- D. Reverse trendelenburg with extended neck
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.
5. In which patients would the manifestation of a headache be a sign of a serious underlying disorder?
- A. A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
- B. A 30-year-old woman with a unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea
- C. A 60-year-old man with his head feeling full and throbbing and muscle aching around his neck and shoulders
- D. A 40-year-old woman who experiences food cravings, gets irritable, and then develops a pulsatile-like headache on the right side of her head
Correct answer: A 55-year-old man with new onset of headaches that are worse at night and reported mood swings according to his family
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is the 55-year-old man with new onset headaches that worsen at night and reported mood swings according to his family. These symptoms, especially when combined with nighttime worsening and mood changes, could indicate a serious underlying disorder such as a brain tumor or increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as the unilateral throbbing headache with photophobia and nausea is suggestive of migraine headaches, which are usually not associated with serious underlying disorders. Choice C describes symptoms that are more indicative of tension-type headaches rather than a serious underlying disorder. Choice D presents symptoms that are more likely related to hormonal changes and migraines rather than a serious underlying disorder.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI Basic
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 90 days access @ $149.99