rn ati capstone proctored comprehensive assessment 2019 b RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B - Nursing Elites
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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab results of a client with liver disease. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated ammonia levels in a client with liver disease can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that can cause cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice A) are common in liver disease but do not require immediate intervention. Low albumin levels (Choice B) and low hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are also common in liver disease but do not pose an immediate threat compared to elevated ammonia levels.

2. What are the complications of diabetes mellitus that a nurse should monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Complications of diabetes mellitus that a nurse should monitor for include nephropathy and cardiovascular disease, in addition to diabetic ketoacidosis, hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, neuropathy, and retinopathy. While choices A and C mention some complications of diabetes, they do not cover all the complications that a nurse should monitor for. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests selecting all options, which is not accurate.

3. A client who reports insomnia is being taught by a nurse about promoting rest and sleep. Which statement should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the instructions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because avoiding alcohol before bedtime can help promote better sleep. Choice A is incorrect as vigorous exercise close to bedtime can actually hinder sleep. Choice B is also incorrect as consuming beverages with caffeine or sugar close to bedtime can disrupt sleep. Choice D, while a good practice, does not directly address the issue of avoiding alcohol before bedtime to improve sleep quality.

4. A nurse is caring for a female client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for raloxifene. What should the nurse assess prior to initiating therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregnancy status. Raloxifene is a pregnancy category X drug, which means it can cause serious birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to assess the client's pregnancy status before initiating therapy. Choice B, bone density, while important in osteoporosis management, is not a specific concern related to initiating raloxifene therapy. Choice C, calcium levels, and choice D, blood pressure, are not directly related to the initiation of raloxifene therapy in a female client with osteoporosis.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching for a patient with a prescription for oral metronidazole, what is the priority teaching point?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Report a rash.' Metronidazole can cause severe adverse reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a life-threatening rash. It is crucial to educate the patient to report any rash immediately to prevent serious complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while they may be relevant to consider during metronidazole therapy, they are not the priority teaching point. Headaches can occur but are not as serious as a rash; avoiding sunlight is more related to doxycycline, not metronidazole; and taking with meals is a general instruction for some medications but not the priority teaching point for metronidazole.

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