ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. How does a healthcare professional assess a patient's fluid balance, and what signs indicate fluid overload?
- A. Checking lung sounds for crackles
- B. Checking for signs of orthopnea
- C. Monitoring intake and output, and checking for edema
- D. Measuring daily weight
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring intake and output and checking for edema. Monitoring intake and output provides information about fluid balance in the body, while checking for edema helps assess for fluid overload. Lung sounds and signs of orthopnea are more indicative of respiratory issues rather than fluid balance. Daily weight measurement is useful to assess fluid status, but it alone may not provide a comprehensive evaluation of fluid balance.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter and a prescription for a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Wipe the area around the needleless port with sterile water
- B. Insert the syringe into the needleless port at a 60-degree angle
- C. Withdraw 3 to 5 ml of urine from the port
- D. Don sterile gloves
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to withdraw 3 to 5 ml of urine from the port for an accurate culture and sensitivity test. Wiping the area around the needleless port with sterile water (Choice A) is not necessary when obtaining a urine specimen. Inserting the syringe into the needleless port at a 60-degree angle (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not align with the correct procedure for obtaining a urine specimen. Donning sterile gloves (Choice D) is a good practice but not the immediate action required for obtaining a urine specimen.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has an ethical conflict about the care she is receiving. Which of the following resources should the nurse consult about resolving the dilemma?
- A. Hospital ethics committee
- B. Quality improvement committee
- C. Chaplain
- D. Director of nursing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the hospital ethics committee. This committee is specifically designed to address and resolve ethical conflicts in patient care. It comprises professionals from various disciplines who can provide guidance and support in navigating ethical dilemmas. Choice B, the quality improvement committee, focuses on enhancing the quality of care provided but may not be equipped to handle ethical conflicts. Choice C, the chaplain, offers spiritual and emotional support but may not have the expertise to resolve ethical dilemmas. Choice D, the director of nursing, is responsible for nursing operations and may not be the appropriate resource for addressing ethical conflicts.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
- B. SaO2 94%
- C. Respiratory rate 8/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.
5. A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?
- A. The client has a do-not-resuscitate order.
- B. The client has a continuous IV of lactated Ringer's.
- C. The client was straight catheterized for 350 mL 2 hours ago.
- D. The client has Medicare insurance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.
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