rn ati capstone proctored comprehensive assessment 2019 b RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the healthcare professional plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A footboard is the correct choice to prevent plantar flexion contractures by maintaining proper alignment of the feet. Plantar flexion contractures involve the foot pointing downward, and a footboard helps keep the foot in a neutral position. Choice A, the sheepskin heel pad, is used for pressure ulcer prevention and comfort but does not specifically address plantar flexion contractures. Choice C, the trochanter roll, is used for hip positioning, not foot alignment. Choice D, the abduction pillow, is used to maintain proper positioning of the legs but does not directly address plantar flexion contractures.

2. What are the signs of infection that should be monitored in a postoperative patient?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site.' These are specific signs of infection at the surgical site that a nurse should monitor for in a postoperative patient. While fever, chills, and increased pain can also indicate infection, the most direct signs are redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site. Therefore, 'D' is the best choice as it directly relates to the site of the surgery and is crucial to monitor for potential postoperative infections.

3. A nurse in an emergency department is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult client who is transferring to a medical-surgical unit using the SBAR communication tool. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an SBAR report, key information such as the client's do-not-resuscitate (DNR) status should be included as it directly impacts the client's care and treatment plan. Choices B and C are important details but may not be as critical for immediate care planning during the shift change. Choice D, the client having Medicare insurance, is important for billing purposes but does not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

4. A client in her first trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about over-the-counter medications that belong to pregnancy risk category B. Which of the following medications should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct choice as it belongs to pregnancy risk category B, making it considered safe during pregnancy. Naproxen, Aspirin, and Ibuprofen are not recommended during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester, as they are classified in higher-risk categories which may be harmful to the developing fetus.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.

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