ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client 15 minutes after administering morphine sulfate 2 mg via IV push. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Drowsy but responsive when her name is called
- B. SaO2 94%
- C. Respiratory rate 8/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale from 0 to 10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min is a significant adverse effect of morphine that indicates respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The client may not be effectively ventilating, leading to hypoxia and respiratory acidosis. Option A is less concerning as being drowsy but responsive is a common side effect of morphine. Option B indicates decreased oxygen saturation, which is also a concern but not as severe as respiratory depression. Option D is important but not as critical as the potential respiratory compromise indicated by the low respiratory rate.
2. What is a recommended nursing action for a client who experiences short-term memory loss after Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?
- A. Provide cognitive-behavioral therapy
- B. Offer frequent orientation and reassurance
- C. Administer a sedative to improve memory recall
- D. Refer the client to a neurologist for further evaluation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct nursing action for a client experiencing short-term memory loss after ECT is to offer frequent orientation and reassurance. This helps the client feel supported and aids in memory retention. Providing cognitive-behavioral therapy (Choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the primary intervention for memory loss post-ECT. Administering a sedative (Choice C) is not recommended as it may further affect memory recall. Referring the client to a neurologist (Choice D) for further evaluation is not the initial action needed; offering support and orientation should be the first approach to manage memory issues post-ECT.
3. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is preparing to delegate tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). Which of the following tasks should the charge nurse delegate to the LPN?
- A. Administering an oral antibiotic to a client
- B. Performing an admission assessment of a client
- C. Creating new teaching for a guardian of a toddler
- D. Administering IV conscious sedation to a client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oral antibiotics is within the scope of practice for an LPN and can be safely delegated. LPNs are trained to administer medications, including oral ones. Performing an admission assessment (Choice B) involves critical thinking and comprehensive evaluation, typically done by registered nurses. Creating new teaching material (Choice C) requires specialized knowledge and is usually the responsibility of a nurse with additional training in education. Administering IV conscious sedation (Choice D) is a high-risk task that requires advanced skills and should be performed by a registered nurse or higher-level provider.
4. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?
- A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
- B. Early detection of mental illness
- C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
- D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.
5. What are the signs of infection that should be monitored in a postoperative patient?
- A. Fever and chills
- B. All of the above
- C. Increased pain or tenderness
- D. Redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site.' These are specific signs of infection at the surgical site that a nurse should monitor for in a postoperative patient. While fever, chills, and increased pain can also indicate infection, the most direct signs are redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site. Therefore, 'D' is the best choice as it directly relates to the site of the surgery and is crucial to monitor for potential postoperative infections.
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