ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 2
- B. 3
- C. 4
- D. 5
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To calculate the mL needed, divide the total dose by the dose per mL. In this case, 40 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 4 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL per dose. Choice A, 2 mL, is incorrect because it would only deliver 20 mg of furosemide, which is half the required dose. Choices B and D are also incorrect as they do not provide the accurate amount needed to achieve the 40 mg dosage.
2. A client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should expect dark tarry stools.
- B. I should expect increased bruising.
- C. I will not get as many infections.
- D. I will expect the color of my urine to be amber.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When taking ferrous sulfate, dark tarry stools can occur as a common side effect due to the iron content in the medication. This is a normal response to the medication and not a cause for concern. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased bruising, reduced infections, and amber-colored urine are not expected side effects of ferrous sulfate.
3. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is preparing to delegate tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). Which of the following tasks should the charge nurse delegate to the LPN?
- A. Administering an oral antibiotic to a client
- B. Performing an admission assessment of a client
- C. Creating new teaching for a guardian of a toddler
- D. Administering IV conscious sedation to a client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oral antibiotics is within the scope of practice for an LPN and can be safely delegated. LPNs are trained to administer medications, including oral ones. Performing an admission assessment (Choice B) involves critical thinking and comprehensive evaluation, typically done by registered nurses. Creating new teaching material (Choice C) requires specialized knowledge and is usually the responsibility of a nurse with additional training in education. Administering IV conscious sedation (Choice D) is a high-risk task that requires advanced skills and should be performed by a registered nurse or higher-level provider.
4. What are the key nursing interventions for a patient experiencing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
- A. Positioning the patient in a prone position
- B. Monitoring vital signs and lung sounds
- C. Preparing for mechanical ventilation
- D. Administering supplemental oxygen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positioning the patient in a prone position. Prone positioning is a key nursing intervention for patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) as it helps improve oxygenation by allowing better lung ventilation. Choice B, monitoring vital signs and lung sounds, is important but not a key intervention specific to ARDS. Choice C, preparing for mechanical ventilation, may be necessary in severe cases of ARDS but is not a primary nursing intervention. Choice D, administering supplemental oxygen, is a common supportive measure but is not specific to ARDS interventions.
5. A client is being taught about which foods to include in a low fiber diet. Which statement indicates understanding?
- A. Choosing a fresh pear would be a good snack option
- B. I should make refried beans for supper
- C. Selecting white rice as a side dish is a good choice
- D. Opting for bran cereal would be a good breakfast choice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because white rice is a low-fiber food suitable for a low-fiber diet, making it an appropriate choice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because fresh pear, refried beans, and bran cereal are high-fiber foods and not suitable for a low-fiber diet.
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