ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3
1. What occurs in a client with polycythemia?
- A. Deficient plasma in the blood
- B. Increased lymphatic fluid being produced
- C. Increased red blood cells being produced
- D. Deficient number of red blood cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased red blood cells being produced. Polycythemia is a condition characterized by an elevated number of red blood cells in the blood. This increased concentration of red blood cells can lead to blood thickening and potentially result in complications such as blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because polycythemia does not involve deficient plasma, increased lymphatic fluid production, or a deficient number of red blood cells.
2. A patient who is being administered isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis has a yellow color in the sclera of her eye. What other finding would lead you to believe that hepatotoxicity has developed?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Numbness
- C. Diminished vision
- D. Light-colored stools
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diarrhea. Hepatotoxicity caused by isoniazid can present with various symptoms, including yellow discoloration of the sclera of the eyes, which indicates jaundice. Another common sign of hepatotoxicity is gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which can occur due to liver dysfunction affecting bile production and digestion. Numbness (choice B) is more commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy caused by isoniazid, while diminished vision (choice C) and light-colored stools (choice D) are not typical manifestations of hepatotoxicity.
3. In osteoporosis, what is the expected therapeutic action of raloxifene (Evista)?
- A. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- B. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It decreases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in strengthening bones, reducing the risk of fractures, and improving bone health in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents bone loss. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily affect calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not primarily decrease the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
4. When a healthcare professional observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6 to 14 hours after death, the healthcare professional should document this finding as _____ present.
- A. Livor mortis
- B. Gangrene
- C. Algor mortis
- D. Rigor mortis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rigor mortis. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of muscles after death, typically beginning within 6 to 14 hours. Livor mortis (choice A) refers to the pooling of blood in the lowest tissues causing discoloration, gangrene (choice B) is the death of body tissue due to lack of blood flow, and algor mortis (choice C) is the cooling of the body after death.
5. A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Hypertensive crisis
- D. Myocardial infarction
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk of thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the atria. This can lead to the formation of blood clots, which may travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke or heart failure, it is specifically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism due to the clot formation associated with the condition.
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