Nursing Elites

1. What occurs in a client with polycythemia?

• A. Deficient plasma in the blood
• B. Increased lymphatic fluid being produced
• C. Increased red blood cells being produced
• D. Deficient number of red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased red blood cells being produced. Polycythemia is a condition characterized by an elevated number of red blood cells in the blood. This increased concentration of red blood cells can lead to blood thickening and potentially result in complications such as blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because polycythemia does not involve deficient plasma, increased lymphatic fluid production, or a deficient number of red blood cells.

2. In addition to matching ABO antigens, a blood transfusion must also be matched for:

• A. HLA type
• B. Rh antigen
• C. Immunoglobulins
• D. Platelet compatibility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rh antigen. In addition to ABO antigens, Rh antigen must also be matched for a blood transfusion. Rh antigen compatibility is crucial to prevent adverse reactions. Choice A, HLA type, is not directly related to blood transfusions but plays a role in organ transplantation. Choice C, Immunoglobulins, are not typically matched for blood transfusions. Choice D, Platelet compatibility, while important in specific cases, is not a standard requirement for all blood transfusions.

3. Inflammatory exudates are a combination of several types. Which of the following exudates is composed of a large accumulation of leukocytes?

• A. Serous
• B. Purulent
• C. Fibrinous
• D. Hemorrhagic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Purulent. Purulent exudates, or pus, consist primarily of leukocytes and dead cells, indicating a bacterial infection. Serous exudates contain a thin, watery fluid with few leukocytes. Fibrinous exudates are rich in fibrin and are commonly seen in severe inflammation. Hemorrhagic exudates contain red blood cells due to blood vessel damage.

4. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
• D. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. This is crucial for the drug to work optimally. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate does not necessarily need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice C is not directly related to the medication's administration and is not a common teaching point for this drug. Choice D is incorrect as discontinuing the medication abruptly can lead to adverse effects and is not recommended without consulting a healthcare provider.

5. What assessment is the nurse performing when a client is asked to stand with feet together, eyes open, and hands by the sides, and then asked to close the eyes while the nurse observes for a full minute?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Weber test
• C. Rinne test
• D. Babinski test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Romberg test. The Romberg test is used to assess balance and proprioception. During the test, the client is asked to stand with feet together, eyes open, and hands by the sides to observe their balance. Then, the client is asked to close their eyes while the nurse continues to observe for a full minute. This test helps in detecting any issues with proprioception and balance, which may be compromised in conditions affecting the nervous system. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Weber test is used to assess hearing in each ear, the Rinne test is used to compare air and bone conduction of sound, and the Babinski test is used to assess the integrity of the corticospinal tract.

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