ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. Respiratory rate of 24/min
- B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3
- C. SpO2 of 95%
- D. Clear breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Sodium 138 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine 3.8 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An elevated serum creatinine level can indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to report before administering enalapril. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can affect kidney function, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the initiation of enalapril therapy.
3. A client on glucocorticoid therapy is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I have my eyes examined annually.
- B. I take a calcium vitamin supplement daily.
- C. I limit my intake of foods with potassium.
- D. I consistently take my medication between 8 and 9 each evening.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking a calcium supplement daily is crucial for clients on glucocorticoid therapy to prevent osteoporosis, a common side effect of long-term use. Choice A is unrelated to glucocorticoid therapy. Choice C, limiting potassium intake, is not necessary for clients on glucocorticoids. Choice D, taking medication consistently in the evening, is important but does not specifically address the side effects of glucocorticoid therapy.
4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Broccoli
- B. Bananas
- C. Cheddar cheese
- D. Whole wheat bread
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is an excellent source of calcium, which is essential for bone health. Calcium helps strengthen bones and reduces the risk of osteoporosis. Broccoli (choice A) is also a good source of calcium but not as high as cheddar cheese. Bananas (choice B) and whole wheat bread (choice D) do not provide significant amounts of calcium and are not as effective in preventing osteoporosis as cheddar cheese.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which statement should the nurse make?
- A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
- B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
- C. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- D. Dehydration causes gastroesophageal reflux.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement is B: 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.' Dehydration can lead to increased uterine irritability, potentially causing preterm contractions and labor. Choice A is incorrect as dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with fluids. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by a lack of fluids. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration does not directly cause gastroesophageal reflux.
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