Free ATI Nutrition practice for ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019 (ATI RN). Answer 66 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tra
Membership dropout generally occurs in group therapy after a member:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.
A client is on a 2,000-calorie American Diabetes Association (ADA) diet and substitutes whole milk with skim milk. Which of the following items can the client add to the oatmeal on his breakfast tray?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is one ounce of raisins. Raisins are a healthy option to add to oatmeal as they provide natural sweetness without added sugars. They are a good source of fiber and essential nutrients. Option A, one 1/8 teaspoon of salt, is not necessary for flavoring oatmeal. Option C, one tablespoon of low-fat margarine, may add unnecessary fat to the meal. Option D, one teaspoon of brown sugar, adds extra sugar, which should be limited in a diabetes-friendly diet.
Diego is undergoing blood transfusion of the first unit. The earliest signs of transfusion reactions are:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
The psychosocial task of a 55 year old adult client is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.
The nurse is completing a nutritional assessment on a client. Which statement made by the client is most concerning to the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Excessive intake of vitamin E can increase the risk of bleeding as it acts as a blood thinner. Bruising easily may indicate too much vitamin E. Choice B is not as concerning as it describes a lifestyle that may lead to vitamin D deficiency due to lack of sunlight exposure. Choice C shows awareness of the interaction between warfarin and vitamin K, which is expected. Choice D indicates knowledge of the vitamin A content in the supplement, which is not a cause for concern.
Nutritional goals for a patient wishing to modify eating patterns should adhere to each, except one. Which is the exception?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nutritional goals should be measurable, realistic, and achievable. They should not be immediate, as sustainable changes take time.
A nurse is discussing sources of vitamin K with a client. Which food should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Leafy greens are rich in vitamin K, which is important for blood clotting.
What is the primary goal of a dental hygienist when making dietary recommendations for a patient with a new dental prosthesis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary goal of a dental hygienist when making dietary recommendations for a patient with a new dental prosthesis is to promote healing and repair. This can be achieved by ensuring the patient maintains an adequate and nutrient-dense diet. This is why option 'A' is the correct answer. Option 'B' is incorrect because while liquids are easier to consume with a new dental prosthesis, a diet consisting only of liquids for a week may not provide all necessary nutrients. Option 'C' is incorrect because while a variety of fibrous foods can contribute to a healthy diet, it's not specifically relevant to the healing and adjustment to a new dental prosthesis. Option 'D' is incorrect because eating as usual may not be feasible or comfortable for a patient with a new prosthesis, and it doesn't specifically focus on promoting healing and repair.
To follow a healthy diet, a person should be sure that:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) suggests that 45-65% of total daily calories should come from carbohydrates.
This quality is being demonstrated by a Nurse who raise the side rails of a confused and disoriented patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
Match amylase with its digestive action:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'breaks down carbs.' Amylase is an enzyme that specifically targets carbohydrates, breaking them down into simpler sugars like maltose. This process aids in the digestion of carbohydrates in the human body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amylase does not break down proteins, lipids, or directly aid fat digestion. Proteins are broken down by proteases, lipids are broken down by lipases, and fat digestion is primarily assisted by bile salts and lipases in the small intestine.
The oral cavity is the site of a wide variety of systemic disease manifestations due to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The oral cavity is indeed the site of various systemic disease manifestations due to multiple factors. Firstly, the rapid cellular turnover in the oral mucosa makes it susceptible to diseases. Secondly, the constant presence of microorganisms in the oral cavity contributes to the development of systemic diseases. Finally, the oral cavity being a trauma-intense environment further increases the risk of systemic manifestations. Therefore, all the provided options - rapid cellular turnover, constant attack by microorganisms, and a trauma-intense environment - play a role in making the oral cavity a site for various systemic diseases. Hence, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they each represent only one aspect of why the oral cavity is prone to systemic disease manifestations, whereas the correct answer encompasses all these factors.
Which of the following is a normal finding during assessment of a Chest tube in a 3 way bottle system?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
Muscle weakness due to wasting would most likely be evaluated by which test?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Handgrip strength is a reliable test to assess muscle function and detect muscle weakness due to wasting. It is often used to identify conditions like sarcopenia in clinical settings. Options A, B, and D are not suitable for evaluating muscle weakness. Food intake recall does not directly measure muscle function, skinfold thickness assesses body fat but not muscle strength, and red blood cell levels are unrelated to muscle wasting.
A nurse is caring for a client with a major burn injury and is receiving TPN. Which of the following lab tests is the priority for the nurse to use to confirm the client is receiving adequate nutrition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Prealbumin is a sensitive indicator of protein status and nutrition, making it a priority for assessing nutritional adequacy in clients receiving TPN.
Maternal malnutrition at a critical period of development may have lifelong effects on an individual's pattern of genetic expression and on the tendency to develop obesity, which is a concept known as _____.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Fetal programming refers to the concept that maternal nutrition during critical periods of development can have long-term effects on an individual's health and risk of diseases like obesity.
Why is atherosclerosis dangerous to arterial function?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Atherosclerosis is dangerous to arterial function because it narrows the arterial lumen, increasing the risk of a clot completely blocking the blood flow. This can lead to severe cardiovascular events such as heart attacks or strokes. Choice A is incorrect since atherosclerosis does not primarily diminish central circulation, but rather, it impedes local blood flow where the plaque is present. Choice B is also incorrect as atherosclerosis increases the pressure on artery walls due to the narrowed space for blood flow, not decrease it. Lastly, choice D is incorrect as atherosclerosis causes the arteries to lose their elasticity, not increase it.
Where is Vitamin K synthesized?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vitamin K is synthesized by bacteria in the gastrointestinal tract. Choice B is incorrect as the synthesis of Vitamin D, not K, can be induced by sunlight exposure. Choice C is incorrect as beriberi is a condition caused by thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency, not Vitamin K. Choice D is incorrect as Vitamin E is commonly found in vegetable oils, not Vitamin K.
An estimated _____ percent of persons in the United States who have HIV infection are unaware that they are infected.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: '21%'. Approximately 21% of persons in the United States who have HIV infection are unaware that they are infected. This percentage represents a significant portion of individuals who are not aware of their HIV status, highlighting the importance of increased testing and awareness campaigns. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the estimated percentage provided in the context.
Which of the following terms refers to weakness of both legs and the lower part of the trunk?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.
Which nutrient deficiency are people who regularly take prescription drugs such as steroids and diuretics at risk for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Regular intake of prescription drugs like steroids and diuretics can lead to the loss of potassium in the body, causing a condition known as hypokalemia. Therefore, people on these medications require careful monitoring and often need potassium supplementation to prevent this deficiency. The other options, selenium, iodine, and chloride, are incorrect because there is no specific link between their deficiency and the regular use of steroids and diuretics.
Starting material for sex hormones:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cholesterol is a precursor for the synthesis of sex hormones like estrogen and testosterone.
Which of the following is a normal change observed in an elderly individual?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, frequent urination. As people age, they may experience physiological changes that can lead to an increased frequency of urination. This is due to a decrease in bladder capacity and increased bladder irritability, which are normal age-related changes. On the contrary, the sense of taste (Choice A) and appetite (Choice B) often decrease with age, not increase. As for Choice D, the lens of the eye actually thickens with age, not thins, leading to conditions like presbyopia. Therefore, Choices A, B, and D are incorrect.
You are to apply a transdermal patch of nitoglycerin to your client. The following are important guidelines to observe EXCEPT:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.
What effect does the use of a hot compress have, as explained to Ronnie who has been prescribed pain medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'It produces an anesthetic effect.' Hot compresses can help alleviate pain by producing an anesthetic effect, which numbs the area. Choice B is incorrect because a hot compress does not directly increase nutrition in the blood to promote wound healing. Choice C is also incorrect because a hot compress primarily aids in pain relief rather than increasing oxygenation to the tissues for enhanced healing. Choice D is incorrect because hot compresses typically lead to vasodilation, not vasoconstriction, which aids in promoting blood flow rather than preventing infection. Safe and effective patient care relies on actions based on established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
What can be a potential consequence of consuming insufficient fat?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Fat is crucial for the production of hormones, including reproductive hormones. Consuming too little fat can lead to hormonal imbalances, affecting fertility. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Constipation is more commonly associated with insufficient fiber intake, marasmus is severe malnutrition due to overall calorie deficiency, and diverticulitis is often related to low fiber intake and not specifically low fat consumption.
A nurse is completing a nutritional assessment of an adult female client. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is at an increased risk of developing cancer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Limiting alcohol consumption to 2 drinks per day is still above the recommended limit for reducing cancer risk; the recommendation is 1 drink per day for women.
The purpose of ECT in clients with depression is to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
A client reports having difficulty losing weight. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'It is helpful to self-monitor your eating.' Self-monitoring dietary intake is an evidence-based strategy that enhances awareness and accountability, making it an effective approach for weight management. Choice A is incorrect as focusing on high-calorie foods first may not be the most effective strategy for weight loss. Choice B is too general and lacks actionable advice. Choice D, tasting food while cooking, does not directly address the client's difficulty in losing weight and is not a proven method for weight management.
Which types of lipids must be listed on the food label? Select all that apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D. All of the above'. This is because, according to regulations, food labels must include the information on total fat, saturated fat, and trans fat. These types of fats are crucial for consumers to monitor, as they can significantly affect heart health. Choices A, B, and C are all correct, but they are only parts of the total information that must be provided. Therefore, the most comprehensive answer is 'D. All of the above'.
A nurse is preparing to teach a group of clients about vitamins and minerals. The nurse should include in the teaching that which of the following minerals is necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Calcium is essential for nerve transmission, muscle contraction, and blood clotting. It is a crucial mineral that plays a vital role in the proper functioning of the nervous system. Phosphorus is important for bone health and energy production but is not directly involved in nerve impulse transmission. Chloride is an electrolyte that helps maintain fluid balance but is not primarily responsible for nerve impulse transmission. Zinc is essential for immune function, wound healing, and DNA synthesis but is not directly related to nerve impulse transmission.
Considering the statement that communication is most effective when barriers are first removed, which of the following is recognized as an inhibiting factor in communication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D: Advanced age of the client.' Age can be a significant obstacle in communication due to factors such as hearing loss, cognitive decline, or memory issues, which all can hamper effective communication. Choices A, B, and C, while they may present challenges in communication, are not directly related to age and its influence on communication, making them incorrect. The issues presented by not using universally accepted abbreviations, incorrect grammar, and poor handwriting can be resolved through clarification, education, or the use of alternative communication methods, unlike the difficulties that can arise from advanced age.
A nurse is providing teaching about food allergies to the parents of a toddler. Which of the following foods should the nurse identify as highest risk for allergies in toddlers?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Eggs. Eggs are one of the most common food allergens in toddlers and should be introduced carefully. Milk (choice B) is also a common allergen but is typically introduced earlier in a child's diet. Bananas (choice C) and citrus fruits (choice D) are less likely to cause allergic reactions compared to eggs.
A nurse is caring for a client who is lactose intolerant. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse assess?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Cramping. Cramping is a common clinical manifestation of lactose intolerance due to the inability to digest lactose properly. Fever (choice A) is not typically associated with lactose intolerance. Blood in stools (choice B) is more indicative of other gastrointestinal issues like inflammatory bowel disease. Steatorrhea (choice D) is the presence of excess fat in the stool and is not a typical symptom of lactose intolerance.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy treatments. The client states, 'I feel so nauseated after my treatments.' Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Common foods served cold, sitting up after meals, and sipping fluids slowly can help manage nausea associated with chemotherapy.
Substance abuse is different from substance dependence in that, substance dependence:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.
For a patient with celiac disease, which dietary modification is necessary?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Avoid gluten. Patients with celiac disease have an immune reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals with celiac disease to avoid gluten-containing products. Increasing protein intake (Choice A) is not specifically necessary for celiac disease management. Increasing dairy intake (Choice C) is unrelated to the dietary requirements of individuals with celiac disease. Avoiding lactose (Choice D) is relevant for individuals with lactose intolerance, not celiac disease. Therefore, the only necessary modification for a patient with celiac disease is to avoid gluten.
Cariogenic foods and beverages, which are fermentable carbohydrates that can be metabolized by oral bacteria, reduce salivary pH to what critical level?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cariogenic foods and beverages lower the pH level in the mouth to below 5.5. This is a critical threshold, as it is the point at which enamel begins to demineralize, increasing the risk of dental caries. Therefore, options 'A', 'C', and 'D' are incorrect. Although a pH level of 5, as suggested by option 'A', would indeed lead to demineralization, it's not the threshold value. The pH levels suggested by options 'C' and 'D' (6 and 6.5, respectively) are higher than the critical value of 5.5, which means they would not initiate enamel demineralization and the subsequent risk of dental caries.
Although a balanced diet is essential for tissue healing and repair, which of the following should the dental hygienist identify as the nutrient of highest priority for a patient with gingivitis or periodontal disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vitamin C is crucial for collagen production and connective tissue repair, making it a key nutrient for healing gingival tissues in patients with gingivitis or periodontal disease. Carbohydrates are a source of energy and not directly related to tissue repair. Vitamin D is important for bone health but is not the highest priority for gingival tissue healing. Monosaccharides are simple sugars and not as essential for tissue repair as Vitamin C.
A nurse is caring for a client who is lactose intolerant. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse assess be?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cramping is a common clinical manifestation of lactose intolerance due to the inability to digest lactose properly.
Which of the following gauges should you prepare for spinal anesthesia if the anesthesiologist requires a pink spinal set and a blue spinal set as backup?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.
How many diet-related major risk factors for coronary heart disease does Mrs. Winslow have?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Mrs. Winslow has four major diet-related risk factors for coronary heart disease: high total cholesterol, high LDL cholesterol, high triglycerides, and low HDL cholesterol. Choice A is incorrect because there are more than one risk factor present. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not account for the total number of diet-related major risk factors identified.
Why is bleeding in the leg of a pregnant woman considered as an emergency?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.
Lynn is an older adult who lives alone and has requested advice on how to eat a nutritious diet as cheaply as possible. One useful, practical tip for Lynn might be to _____.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Buying a few pieces of fresh fruit at different stages of ripeness ensures that Lynn will have ripe fruit available over several days, reducing waste and cost. Choice B focuses on frozen vegetables but doesn't address the variety and ripeness factor like Choice A. Choice C is about cheese, which may not be as essential for a nutritious diet compared to fresh fruit. Choice D suggests avoiding certain foods in bulk, which might not be as relevant for maintaining a nutritious diet economically as the strategy in Choice A.
When rickets occurs, how is the alveolar bone affected compared to other bones in the body?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Both statements are true. When rickets occurs, the alveolar bone is affected similar to other bones in the body, with the trabeculae of the alveolar bone also weakening. In addition to damaged alveolar bone caused by vitamin D deficiency, dental changes include delayed dentition and small molars. The other choices are incorrect because both statements provided are accurate based on the effects of rickets on the alveolar bone.
Which nursing diagnosis has nutritional implications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Impaired dentition affects a patient's ability to chew and consume a variety of foods, leading to potential nutritional deficiencies and malnutrition.
Each of the following accurately describes aspects of the dietary reference intakes (DRIs) published by the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine (IOM) except one. Which one is the exception?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. DRIs are intended for the general population and do not specifically address disease states, which are managed with different clinical guidelines. Choice A is correct as DRIs have replaced the older recommended daily allowances. Choice B is correct as current DRIs aim to estimate the required nutrients for long-term health. Choice D is correct as DRIs also attempt to establish maximum safe levels of tolerance for nutrients.
Bones continuously lose and gain minerals. This ongoing process is called?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, 'remodeling.' Remodeling is the process by which bones continuously lose and gain minerals, maintaining bone strength and integrity over time. 'Reorganization' (choice A), 'reorienting' (choice B), and 'demineralizing' (choice C) do not accurately describe the process of bones continuously losing and gaining minerals.
Each of the following accurately describes aspects of the dietary reference intakes (DRIs) published by the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine (IOM) except one. Which one is the exception?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. DRIs do not specifically address individuals with disease states; they are intended for the general healthy population. Choice A is correct because DRIs indeed replace the older recommended daily allowances. Choice B is correct as current DRIs aim to estimate required nutrients to enhance long-term health. Choice D is accurate as DRIs also attempt to establish maximum safe levels of tolerance for nutrients.
In a patient with osteoporosis, which mineral is essential to prevent further bone loss?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Calcium is crucial in preventing bone loss in patients with osteoporosis.
By force of law, therefore, the PRC-Board of Nursing released Resolution No. 14 Series of 1999 entitled: "Adoption of a Nursing Specialty Certification Program and Creation of Nursing Specialty Certification Council." This rule-making power is called:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Regulatory Power. Regulatory power involves the authority to create rules and regulations that govern a specific area. In this case, the PRC-Board of Nursing's release of Resolution No. 14 Series of 1999 for the Nursing Specialty Certification Program falls under regulatory power as it establishes guidelines and standards for nursing specialty certification. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Quasi-judicial power involves making decisions on rights and obligations, quasi-legislative power involves creating regulations with the force of law, and executive/promulgating power involves enforcing and implementing laws and regulations.
Given that orthodontic patients are frequently adolescents, their nutrition and oral self-care are often subpar. A dental hygienist may successfully motivate these noncompliant patients by emphasizing that optimal nutrition and oral self-care can enhance their appearance. Is this true or false?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Both statements are indeed true. Many adolescents undergoing orthodontic treatment often neglect proper nutrition and oral hygiene, leading to subpar practices in these areas. It's common for them to be less attentive to these aspects due to various factors. A dental hygienist's role includes motivating these patients towards better self-care practices. One effective approach is by emphasizing that good nutrition and oral hygiene can significantly enhance their appearance. This approach is particularly effective for adolescents as they are often highly conscious about their looks. The other choices are incorrect because they suggest that one or both of the statements are false, which is not the case.
How is the stomach protected from damage by gastric acid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The stomach is protected from gastric acid by a thick mucus lining that acts as a physical barrier, preventing the acid from eroding the stomach walls. Enzymes in the stomach help with digestion but do not play a significant role in protecting the stomach from acid damage, so choice A is incorrect. While some bacteria in the stomach can be beneficial, they do not primarily protect the stomach from gastric acid, making choice B incorrect. Bicarbonate, a base, can neutralize acid, but it is not the primary defense mechanism against gastric acid in the stomach, so choice C is also incorrect.
Which vitamin is also known as Niacin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Vitamin B3, also known as Niacin. Niacin is essential for energy metabolism and can help improve cholesterol levels. Vitamin B1 is Thiamine, Vitamin B2 is Riboflavin, and Vitamin B12 is Cobalamin. These vitamins have different functions in the body and are not synonymous with Niacin.
Of the following neurotransmitters, which demonstrates inhibitory action, helps control mood and sleep, and inhibits pain pathways?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
Does the reduction in oxidative damage that occurs with energy restriction in animals also occur in people whose diets include _____?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'antioxidants and phytochemicals'. Antioxidants and phytochemicals help reduce oxidative damage in the body, contributing to healthy aging and a lower risk of chronic diseases. This is the same effect observed in animals when their energy intake is restricted. The other choices are incorrect as there is no direct evidence connecting reduced oxidative damage with diets high in fiber and carbohydrates, fatty acids and protein, or probiotics.
A patient tells the nurse “I am depressed to talk to you, leave me alone” Which of the following response by the nurse is most therapeutic?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
During the detoxification stage, it is a priority for the nurse to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
The law which regulated the practice of nursing profession in the Philippines is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
A patient tells the nurse "I am depressed to talk to you, leave me alone" Which of the following response by the nurse is most therapeutic?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
During the detoxification stage, it is a priority for the nurse to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
The law which regulated the practice of nursing profession in the Philippines is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
Sickle cell disease is an example of an inherited mistake in the amino acid sequence.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The statement is TRUE. Sickle cell disease is caused by a genetic mutation in the hemoglobin gene, leading to an abnormal amino acid sequence. This results in the production of abnormal hemoglobin molecules, causing red blood cells to become sickle-shaped. This inherited condition is a classic example of a genetic error affecting the amino acid sequence, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the nature of sickle cell disease.
The IVP reveals that Fe has small renal calculus that can be passed out spontaneously. To increase the chance of passing the stones, you instructed her to force fluids and do which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.
In order to establish a therapeutic relationship with the client, the nurse must first have:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.
Does the hypothalamus control the feeling of hunger and satiety, and are fats the best nutrient in creating the feeling of satiety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Yes, the hypothalamus plays a crucial role in regulating hunger and satiety. Fats are indeed known to be highly satiating nutrients, helping to create a feeling of fullness and satisfaction after a meal. Therefore, both statements are true. Choice B is incorrect because fats are indeed effective in promoting satiety.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.