ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A patient is receiving glucocorticoids for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. The patient complains of having a headache. Which ordered medication should the nurse administer?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Acetaminophen
- C. Ibuprofen
- D. Naproxen Sodium (Aleve)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient is already receiving glucocorticoids for rheumatoid arthritis and complains of a headache, it is essential to consider the potential interactions and side effects of additional medications. Aspirin and NSAIDs like ibuprofen and naproxen sodium can increase the risk of gastrointestinal irritation and ulceration when used concurrently with glucocorticoids. Acetaminophen is a safer choice in this scenario for managing the patient's headache without exacerbating the gastrointestinal issues associated with the use of glucocorticoids. Acetaminophen does not have the same gastrointestinal side effects as aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen sodium, making it the most appropriate option for headache relief in this case.
2. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?
- A. Angina Pectoris
- B. Essential HTN
- C. Atrial Fibrillation
- D. Vasospastic Angina
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.
3. A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours
- B. Monitor the patient's pain level every 8 hours
- C. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours
- D. Keep the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia is to assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours. This frequent assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. Monitoring every 4 hours allows for early detection of any issues, enabling timely intervention and prevention of potential complications. Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours (choice B) is not as immediate or essential for postoperative care. Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours (choice C) may not be necessary if the patient is not ambulatory yet. Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the priority in the immediate postoperative period compared to assessing neurovascular status.
4. Which statement most reflects the observation that the infant sleeps soundly, awakens on his own, and maintains a quiet alert state?
- A. This is atypical behavior and should be addressed
- B. The infant should remain on high alert when awake
- C. This shows the infant is making neurological gains
- D. The family is disrupting the child's sleep patterns
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A quiet alert state in infants indicates positive neurological development. It showcases the infant's ability to regulate sleep-wake cycles and maintain an optimal state for learning and interaction. Therefore, observing an infant who sleeps soundly, awakens on his own, and stays in a quiet alert state is a reassuring sign of neurological gains and healthy development. Choice A is incorrect as it misinterprets normal behavior as atypical. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests the infant should be on high alert, which is not developmentally appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as it falsely blames the family for disrupting the child's sleep patterns, whereas the scenario described indicates positive neurological growth.
5. Which medication is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction?
- A. Morphine
- B. Pentazocine
- C. Hydrocodone
- D. Nalmefene
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Morphine, as a strong opioid agonist, has the highest likelihood of causing serious respiratory depression due to its potent effects on the central nervous system. While Pentazocine and Hydrocodone can also cause respiratory depression, they are less likely to do so compared to morphine. Nalmefene, an opioid antagonist, is used to reverse respiratory depression caused by opioids rather than causing it.
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