ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?
- A. Flushing
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Hearing loss
- D. Dyspepsia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.
2. Why is it important to assess for in a child receiving prednisone to treat nephrotic syndrome?
- A. Infection
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Easy bruising
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a child is receiving prednisone to treat nephrotic syndrome, it is crucial to assess for infection. Prednisone suppresses the immune system, making the child more vulnerable to infections. Since steroids can mask typical signs of infection, it is essential to look for subtle symptoms to ensure prompt treatment and prevent complications. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the impact of prednisone therapy in nephrotic syndrome.
3. Which statement best reflects a top-down approach to the evaluation process?
- A. OT focuses on evaluating the child's poor performance in hand skills
- B. OT conducts an assessment to determine a motor age for fine motor and gross motor skills
- C. OT initiates by interviewing the family about routines, interests, and daily habits
- D. OT starts by assessing muscle tone, postural control, and range of motion
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A top-down evaluation approach in occupational therapy begins with understanding the child's daily life, family routines, interests, and habits to ensure that the therapy provided is relevant and meaningful within the child's natural environment. By initiating the evaluation process with family interviews to gather contextual information, the occupational therapist gains a comprehensive view of the child's life, which allows for a more holistic and client-centered approach. Choice A focuses solely on the child's poor performance in hand skills, which is more characteristic of a bottom-up approach. Choice B mentions determining a motor age, which is not necessarily aligned with a top-down assessment. Choice D emphasizes physical assessments like muscle tone and range of motion, which are important but do not capture the essence of a top-down approach that considers the child's environment and routines.
4. The 6-year-old child scheduled for an orchiopexy shyly asks the nurse, 'What are they going to do to me 'down there'? What is the nurse's best response?
- A. They are going to fix you up 'down there'.
- B. They will move your testicle from your abdomen to your scrotum.
- C. What do you think your doctor is going to do?
- D. You shouldn't worry. Your doctor knows exactly what to do.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should encourage the child to express his thoughts and feelings about the upcoming surgery. This approach helps the child feel heard and understood while providing an opportunity to address any misconceptions or fears. By asking the child what he thinks the doctor will do, the nurse engages the child in a conversation that can help alleviate anxiety and build trust. School-age children often have fears related to bodily harm, and open communication can help alleviate such concerns. Choices A and D do not encourage open communication or address the child's concerns directly. Choice B provides too much detail that may overwhelm the child and is not age-appropriate for a 6-year-old.
5. A healthcare provider is planning care for a child with hyperkalemia. Which manifestation associated with the documented hyperkalemia requires immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Hyperthermia
- B. Respiratory distress
- C. Seizures
- D. Cardiac arrhythmias
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In hyperkalemia, cardiac arrhythmias are the most critical and life-threatening manifestation that requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous heart rhythm disturbances, potentially resulting in cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment is essential to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent life-threatening complications. Hyperthermia, respiratory distress, and seizures are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and should be addressed, but cardiac arrhythmias pose the most urgent risk to the patient's life.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99