Free ATI RN Exit practice for ATI Exit Exam (ATI RN). Answer 86 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking on Nursing Elites
A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional review before administering the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Before administering enoxaparin, it is essential to review potassium levels to monitor for potential imbalances. Enoxaparin, a type of anticoagulant, does not directly affect PT, INR, or platelet count. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication. PT and INR are typically used to monitor warfarin therapy, while platelet count is essential for assessing clotting function but is not directly related to enoxaparin administration.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving heparin to treat deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A platelet count of 80,000/mm3 is below the normal range and should be reported to the provider due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin can cause a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, leading to a decrease in platelet count and an increased risk of bleeding. The aPTT of 38 seconds, hemoglobin of 15 g/dL, and an INR of 1.0 are within normal ranges and not directly concerning in this scenario. Platelet count is crucial to monitor in clients receiving heparin therapy to ensure adequate clotting function and prevent bleeding complications.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators. In an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways and improve airflow. Bronchodilators like albuterol are crucial in providing immediate relief to the patient. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) is important but administering bronchodilators takes precedence in managing the acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the airway obstruction with bronchodilators is the priority. Starting IV fluids (choice D) is not the priority in an acute asthma attack unless specifically indicated for other reasons such as dehydration.
A nurse is caring for a client following the application of a cast. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Palpating the pulse distal to the cast is the priority as it assesses for circulation. Ensuring adequate blood flow is essential to prevent complications such as compartment syndrome. Placing an ice pack over the cast could cause constriction of blood vessels, further compromising circulation. Teaching the client about cast care and positioning the casted extremity on a pillow are important but do not take precedence over assessing circulation.
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.
A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions as a result of an interaction between these substances?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Serotonin syndrome. When a client takes St. John's wort, a herbal supplement, along with citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), there is a risk of developing serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by symptoms such as confusion, agitation, fever, sweating, shivering, tremors, muscle rigidity, and in severe cases, seizures and coma. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tardive dyskinesia is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, pseudo-parkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, and acute dystonia is a side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by sustained muscle contractions.
A nurse is observing bonding between the client and her newborn. Which of the following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because viewing the newborn's actions as uncooperative may indicate the client is struggling to bond, requiring intervention. Choices A, B, and C do not raise concerns about the bonding process between the client and the newborn. Holding the newborn in an en face position is a positive interaction. Asking the father to change the newborn's diaper involves family participation in care. Requesting the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery so she can rest is a valid request for maternal self-care.
A client is receiving discharge teaching about a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. When taking ferrous sulfate, clients should expect their stools to turn black, which is a normal side effect due to the iron content. Choice A is incorrect because ferrous sulfate should not be taken with milk as it can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because vitamin C-rich foods like oranges can actually enhance the absorption of iron. Choice D is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. What action should the nurse include in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action that the nurse should include in the plan for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is important to prevent complications such as infection or excessive bleeding. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not necessary unless specific medications need to be avoided due to the dialysis process. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension (Choice B) is not directly related to post-dialysis care. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not a standard practice unless there is a specific clinical indication.
A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube is to flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding. This step helps ensure the patency of the tube by clearing any blockages or residuals. Choice A is incorrect because flushing after feeding would not prevent clogging before the feeding. Choice C is unrelated to tube feeding administration. Choice D is incorrect as the height for the feeding bag is usually recommended to be at or below the level of the stomach to prevent complications like aspiration.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Visual disturbances, such as blurred or yellow vision, are common signs of digoxin toxicity. While constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity, tachycardia (Choice B) and hypertension (Choice D) are not characteristic manifestations of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is visual disturbances (Choice C).
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chlamydia is the correct answer. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that is considered a nationally notifiable infectious disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities. Reporting such cases is crucial for disease surveillance and implementing appropriate control measures. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Bending at the waist can increase the risk of dislocation following hip arthroplasty. This movement can put strain on the hip joint and potentially lead to complications. Choices A, C, and D are all correct statements that promote proper postoperative care and help prevent complications. Sitting in a recliner, using a pillow between the legs when lying on the side, and avoiding crossing legs when sitting are all appropriate instructions for a client recovering from hip arthroplasty.
A client who is at 38 weeks gestation, is in active labor, and has ruptured membranes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Applying a fetal heart rate monitor is the priority action in this scenario as it helps assess the well-being of the fetus during labor. This monitoring is crucial to detect any signs of fetal distress and guide interventions. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) is not a priority at this time unless there are specific indications. Initiating fundal massage (Choice C) is not necessary in this situation as the focus should be on fetal assessment. Initiating an oxytocin IV infusion (Choice D) is not indicated until the stage of labor and the progress of labor are determined.
How should fluid balance in a patient with heart failure be monitored?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in assessing fluid balance in patients with heart failure because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid accumulation but may not be as accurate as daily weight monitoring. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.
A nurse is preparing to perform tracheostomy care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Suctioning the tracheostomy should be performed first to clear the airway of secretions and ensure proper oxygenation before proceeding with other care. This helps maintain a patent airway and prevent complications such as aspiration. Applying a sterile dressing, removing the inner cannula, or cleaning the stoma can follow after ensuring adequate airway clearance through suctioning.
When using an IV pump for a newly admitted client, what action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when using an IV pump for a newly admitted client is to hold the IV pump cord while walking the client. This is important for ensuring the safe and secure management of the IV pump during client mobility. Option A is incorrect as grasping the IV pump cord when unplugging it can lead to electrical hazards. Option B is incorrect as ensuring the pump is plugged into an outlet with two prongs is important for electrical safety but not directly related to the nurse's action. Option D is also important but does not directly address the nurse's immediate action while using the IV pump with the client.
A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.
What is the most important nursing assessment for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important nursing assessment for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to check for leg pain. Leg pain is a cardinal symptom of DVT and is often the initial indicator of a blood clot. While assessing for warmth, swelling, and redness are also important in DVT evaluation, leg pain is the most crucial as it can prompt further diagnostic testing and interventions. Performing Homan's sign test is no longer recommended due to its low specificity and potential to dislodge a clot, causing complications. Monitoring for redness is important but may not always be present in DVT cases. Assessing for warmth and swelling is relevant but still secondary to the assessment of leg pain in suspected DVT cases.
A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a client with a prescription for combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication to combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not contraindications to combination oral contraceptives. Hyperthyroidism may affect thyroid hormone levels but does not directly contraindicate oral contraceptives. Diverticulosis is a condition related to the digestive system and does not impact the use of oral contraceptives. Hypocalcemia, a low calcium level in the blood, is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives.
If a nurse administers an incorrect dose of medication, which fact related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to document the time the medication was given. This is essential for understanding the sequence of events surrounding the medication error. While documenting the client's response to the medication (Choice B) is important for assessing any effects, the immediate concern should be to establish a clear timeline by documenting the time of administration. Recording the dose administered (Choice C) is also important, but in the context of understanding the incident, the time factor takes precedence. The reason for the error (Choice D) should be included in the incident report but may not be the first priority when documenting in the client's medical record.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving packed RBCs. Which of the following findings indicate fluid overload?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common sign of fluid overload in a client receiving packed RBCs. When fluid accumulates in the lungs due to overload, it can lead to respiratory distress. This finding requires prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A) Low back pain is not typically associated with fluid overload; C) Hypotension refers to low blood pressure and is not a typical finding in fluid overload; D) Thready pulse may indicate poor perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid overload.
What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as the priority nursing intervention for a patient with an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve airflow, which is crucial in managing acute asthma symptoms. Administering corticosteroids (Choice B) is also important in the treatment plan, but it is not the priority intervention during an acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority initial intervention. Starting IV fluids (Choice D) is not typically indicated as a priority intervention for an acute asthma attack.
Which medication is used to treat opioid overdose?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Naloxone is the correct answer. Naloxone is the standard medication for reversing opioid overdose by blocking opioid receptors. Choice B, Epinephrine, is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and cardiac arrest, not opioid overdose. Choice C, Lidocaine, is a local anesthetic used for numbing purposes and managing certain types of arrhythmias, not for opioid overdose. Choice D, Atropine, is used to treat bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning, and nerve agent toxicity, not opioid overdose.
What is the appropriate action when a patient refuses treatment for religious reasons?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to respect the patient's decision. When a patient refuses treatment for religious reasons, it is crucial to respect their autonomy and beliefs. Persuading the patient to accept treatment could violate their rights and autonomy, going against ethical principles. Informing the healthcare provider is important, but the immediate action should be to respect the patient's decision first. Documenting the refusal is necessary for legal and documentation purposes, but it should not override respecting the patient's autonomy and right to refuse treatment based on religious beliefs.
A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration and inadequate glucose control in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not directly correlate with the condition of hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, they are not the priority values to report in this scenario.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct Answer: C. Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water to ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken with food. Choice B is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not after meals. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken at a specific time following the instructions given.
A nurse is caring for a client with Alzheimer's disease who wanders frequently. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to ensure that the client wears an identification bracelet at all times. This intervention helps staff recognize clients who wander and ensures their safety. Placing the client in a well-lit area (Choice A) may be helpful in some cases but does not directly address the issue of wandering. Keeping the client's bed in the lowest position (Choice C) is important for fall prevention but is not directly related to wandering behavior. Using physical restraints (Choice D) is not recommended as the first-line intervention for wandering and should be avoided due to ethical concerns and potential risks.
A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent catheter-associated infections?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to ensure the drainage bag is positioned above the bladder. This positioning prevents urine reflux into the bladder, reducing the risk of catheter-associated infections. Changing the catheter too frequently (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of infection by introducing pathogens. Performing routine catheter irrigation (Choice C) is no longer recommended as it can increase the risk of infection by introducing bacteria. Emptying the drainage bag every 4 hours (Choice D) is a standard practice to prevent urinary stasis but is not directly related to preventing catheter-associated infections.
A client receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) should have naloxone administered if their respiratory rate is below 10/min. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate falls below 10/min. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening situation. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every 4 hours (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as respiratory depression requires immediate attention. Asking the client to rate their pain every 2 hours (Choice B) is important for pain management but addressing respiratory depression takes precedence. Evaluating the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours (Choice D) is a routine nursing intervention but does not directly address the urgent need to reverse respiratory depression in this case.
A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's admission laboratory results. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. An elevated creatinine level, such as 1.8, suggests potential kidney dysfunction, requiring further assessment. Sodium level within normal limits (135-145 mEq/L), hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL, and potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L are all within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns. Therefore, they do not require further evaluation at this time.
A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.
A client is being taught about the use of hypnosis during labor. Which of the following statements is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because hypnosis during labor aims to increase control over pain perception, helping manage labor pain without the need for medication. Choice A is incorrect as hypnosis doesn't primarily focus on biofeedback. Choice C is incorrect because hypnosis doesn't rely on therapeutic touch. Choice D is incorrect because hypnosis doesn't just provide instructions to minimize pain but rather helps individuals gain control over their pain perception.
A nurse is observing bonding between a client and her newborn. Which of the following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because viewing the newborn's actions as uncooperative indicates a lack of bonding, which requires intervention. Choices A, B, and C all involve appropriate and caring actions by the client towards the newborn. Holding the newborn in an en face position promotes bonding, involving the father in caring for the newborn is beneficial for family involvement, and requesting rest by asking the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery is a responsible action to ensure both the client and the newborn get adequate rest.
A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with chronic heart failure. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Follow a 3g sodium diet. For clients with chronic heart failure, limiting sodium intake is crucial to prevent fluid retention and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, causing the heart to work harder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking excessive fluid can worsen fluid retention in heart failure, elevating the workload of the heart. Placing the client's lower extremities on two pillows is a positioning intervention to alleviate edema, not a dietary recommendation. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 89% is more related to respiratory status rather than dietary management of chronic heart failure.
A client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking gastric residual volumes every 6 hours is essential in preventing aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings. This practice helps determine if the stomach is adequately emptying, reducing the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees, not 15 degrees, is recommended to further prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of reflux. Monitoring the pH of gastric aspirate is important to assess tube placement but does not directly prevent aspiration. Instilling air into the tube before feeding is not a recommended practice and does not prevent aspiration.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates a need to revise the client's plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevated random serum glucose levels of 190 mg/dL indicate hyperglycemia and poor blood sugar control, requiring a revised plan of care. HbA1c levels above 7% also indicate long-term poor control of blood sugar. Serum sodium of 144 mEq/L and creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate a need for a plan of care revision.
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. This medication promotes potassium excretion and helps lower serum potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia, which is indicated by a high potassium level. Sodium bicarbonate (choice A) is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate (choice C) and calcium carbonate (choice D) are used to manage hyperkalemia by stabilizing cell membranes but are not the initial treatment choice for lowering potassium levels.
A client who has a new prescription for omeprazole is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Taking omeprazole before meals is important as it improves the medication's effectiveness in reducing gastric acid production. Option B is incorrect as omeprazole should not be taken with antacids as it can interfere with its absorption. Option C is incorrect because omeprazole is usually recommended to be taken before breakfast, not at bedtime. Option D is incorrect as omeprazole is generally taken on an empty stomach, at least 1 hour before a meal.
A nurse is preparing to administer an IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is dehydrated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to assess the client's lung sounds before administering IV fluids. This is crucial to identify any signs of fluid overload, such as crackles or wheezes. Administering the solution slowly over 24 hours (choice A) is not appropriate for an IV bolus, which is a rapid infusion. Changing the IV tubing every 12 hours (choice C) is a standard practice for preventing infection but is not directly related to administering an IV bolus. Flushing the IV line with heparin every 4 hours (choice D) is a maintenance practice to prevent clot formation in the line, not specifically related to administering an IV bolus.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Keeping the client's legs elevated is the appropriate action to prevent venous thromboembolism following a total knee arthroplasty. Elevating the legs helps promote circulation and reduce the risk of blood clots. Placing a pillow under the client's knees may provide comfort but does not address the specific postoperative complication. Flexing the client's knee every 2 hours may be contraindicated as excessive movement can disrupt the surgical site. Applying heat to the operative knee is not recommended immediately postoperatively as it can increase swelling and discomfort.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A cool left foot indicates impaired circulation, which could be a sign of compartment syndrome or impaired blood flow. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is expected postoperatively and is not a concerning finding. A capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds is normal), indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 62/min is also within the normal range for an adult, suggesting no immediate concern related to the surgery.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has major depressive disorder and is taking tranylcypromine. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Cured meats. Cured meats contain tyramine, which can lead to a hypertensive crisis in clients taking tranylcypromine. Bananas, milk, and yogurt do not contain significant amounts of tyramine and are safe for clients taking this medication. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid cured meats to prevent adverse effects.
A nurse is assessing a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH), the nurse should expect hyponatremia. SIADH leads to excess water retention, diluting the sodium levels in the blood, resulting in low serum sodium levels. Choice A, increased urine output, is incorrect as SIADH causes water retention, leading to decreased urine output. Choice B, increased serum sodium, is incorrect because SIADH causes a dilutional effect due to water retention, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is unrelated to SIADH and not a typical finding.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to prevent aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This positioning helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Placing the client in the left lateral position after feedings does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the tube with sterile water before each feeding is important for tube patency but does not specifically prevent aspiration. Checking gastric residuals every 8 hours is necessary to monitor the client's tolerance to feedings but is not a direct preventive measure against aspiration.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Captopril is known to cause a persistent, dry cough as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness. Choices A and B are incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so potassium supplements may be necessary in some cases.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has hypertension about monitoring blood pressure at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to sit quietly for 5 minutes before measuring their blood pressure. This allows the body to relax and stabilize, leading to a more accurate reading. Choice A is incorrect because using a cuff that is too loose can result in inaccurate readings. Choice B is incorrect as the cuff should be placed directly on the bare skin. Choice D is incorrect as using the same arm for each reading is important for consistency in monitoring, but sitting quietly before measuring is crucial for accuracy.
How should a healthcare provider handle a patient with non-compliance to hypertension medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Providing education about the importance of medication adherence is crucial in managing hypertension. By educating the patient about the significance of taking their medication as prescribed, the healthcare provider can help improve compliance and control the patient's blood pressure. Referring the patient to a specialist (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases but addressing non-compliance should start with education. Exploring alternative treatments (Choice C) could be considered if the current medication is not suitable, but initial steps should focus on improving adherence. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (Choice D) may be too delayed if non-compliance is an issue that needs immediate attention.
A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis is to withhold heparin IV infusion. Administering heparin is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis by preventing further clot formation. Positioning the affected extremity higher than the heart (Choice A) promotes venous return and reduces swelling. Acetaminophen (Choice B) can be given for pain relief. Massaging the affected extremity (Choice C) is contraindicated as it can dislodge a clot, leading to serious complications.
A client with a history of depression and experiencing a situational crisis is being assessed by a nurse. What action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client with a history of depression is experiencing a situational crisis, the first action the nurse should take is to notify the client's support system. This is crucial as the client may require immediate assistance and support. While helping the client identify personal strengths and confirming the client's perception of the event are important aspects of the assessment and intervention process, notifying the support system takes priority in ensuring the client's safety and well-being. Teaching relaxation techniques may be beneficial but addressing the client's immediate crisis through support system notification is the most appropriate initial action.
A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infection prevention. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because avoiding cleaning the cat's litter box during pregnancy reduces the risk of toxoplasmosis, which can be harmful to the developing fetus. Choice A is incorrect because visiting someone with chickenpox should be avoided as it is highly contagious. Choice C is incorrect as handwashing after gardening should involve soap and water, not just hot water, for effective infection prevention. Choice D is incorrect because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections.
A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct finding the nurse should report to the provider is decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe. This can indicate a respiratory infection or atelectasis in clients with COPD, requiring further evaluation and intervention. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 91%, although slightly lower than normal, does not necessarily require immediate reporting unless the client's baseline is significantly higher. Choice B, the use of pursed-lip breathing, is actually a beneficial technique for clients with COPD to improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath, so it does not need reporting. Choice C, a productive cough with green sputum, can be common in clients with COPD and may indicate an infection, but it is not as concerning as decreased breath sounds in a specific lung lobe which may signify a more acute issue.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Avoid crossing your legs when sitting.' After a total hip arthroplasty, it is important for clients to avoid crossing their legs to prevent complications such as dislocation. Crossing the legs can put strain on the new hip joint, increasing the risk of dislocation. Choice A is incorrect as crossing legs can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as bending at the waist can strain the hip joint, leading to complications. Choice D is incorrect as using a raised toilet seat is recommended after hip surgery to prevent excessive bending at the hip joint.
A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Weighing oneself daily is crucial in monitoring fluid retention, a key aspect in managing heart failure. This helps in detecting early signs of fluid buildup, prompting timely interventions. Choice A is incorrect as the recommended sodium intake for heart failure clients is usually lower, around 2-3 grams daily. Choice C is incorrect because excessive water intake can worsen fluid retention in heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as clients with heart failure should consult healthcare providers before significantly altering their physical activity levels.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: "You should monitor for signs of infection while taking this medication." When a client is prescribed prednisone, it is essential to monitor for signs of infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of corticosteroids. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because prednisone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, at a specific time of day, or avoided with dairy products.
A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.
A client is starting therapy with a statin medication. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to avoid consuming grapefruit juice when taking statin medication. Grapefruit juice can interfere with the metabolism of statins, leading to an increased risk of adverse effects. Taking the medication on an empty stomach (Choice A) or in the morning (Choice D) is not specifically necessary for statins. While increasing dietary fiber intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for health, it is not a specific instruction related to taking statin medication.
Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving insulin therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels. When a patient is receiving insulin therapy, it is crucial to monitor blood glucose levels regularly to prevent hypoglycemia, a potential side effect of insulin therapy. Monitoring potassium, calcium, or sodium levels is important for different medical conditions or treatments and is not directly related to insulin therapy.
What is the best nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is the best nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath as it helps alleviate the symptoms and improve oxygenation. Providing oxygen addresses the primary issue of inadequate oxygen levels in the body, which can be a life-threatening situation. Administering bronchodilators (choice B) may be appropriate for specific respiratory conditions like asthma but is not the initial intervention for all causes of shortness of breath. Repositioning the patient (choice C) can sometimes help improve breathing, but in a patient experiencing significant shortness of breath, immediate oxygen therapy is crucial. Providing IV fluids (choice D) is not indicated as the first-line intervention for shortness of breath unless there is a specific underlying cause such as dehydration.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught self-administration of insulin by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction the nurse should include is to rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region. This practice helps reduce the risk of lipodystrophy, a condition characterized by fatty tissue changes due to repeated insulin injections in the same spot. By rotating sites, the client ensures better insulin absorption and prevents localized skin changes. Injecting air into the vial before withdrawing insulin (Choice A) is unnecessary and not recommended. Drawing up short-acting insulin before long-acting insulin (Choice B) is not a standard practice and can lead to errors in dosing. Storing unopened insulin vials in the freezer (Choice C) is incorrect as insulin should be stored in the refrigerator, not the freezer, to maintain its effectiveness.
A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is A, left upper quadrant pain. In acute pancreatitis, inflammation of the pancreas commonly causes pain in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. This pain can be severe and radiate to the back. Periumbilical pain (choice B) is more indicative of acute appendicitis. Rebound tenderness (choice C) is associated with peritoneal inflammation, not specifically pancreatitis. Flank pain (choice D) is more characteristic of conditions involving the kidneys or ureters, such as renal colic.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has cardiac disease. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to promote optimal cardiac output?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Left lateral. Placing the client in the left lateral position helps promote optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by avoiding pressure on the vena cava. This position improves venous return to the heart and subsequently cardiac output. Option A, Semi-Fowler's position, may not be the best choice for a client with cardiac disease as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Option B, supine with head elevated, can also compress the vena cava, reducing cardiac output. Option D, right lateral position, does not provide the same benefits as the left lateral position for cardiac output during pregnancy.
A nurse is developing a care plan for a client with Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention the nurse should include in the care plan for a client with Alzheimer's disease is to provide reality orientation throughout the day. Reality orientation involves helping clients with Alzheimer's disease stay connected to the present, reducing confusion and disorientation. This intervention can help the client maintain a sense of time, place, and person. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because limiting choices may lead to frustration, group therapy may not always be suitable for clients with Alzheimer's disease, and sensory stimulation activities may not address the core issue of disorientation in Alzheimer's disease.
A client is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following interventions should be implemented to prevent postpartum hemorrhage?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering methylergonovine intramuscularly helps contract the uterus, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not directly related to preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine massage (Choice B) is beneficial to prevent uterine atony, but methylergonovine is a more specific intervention to prevent hemorrhage. Applying ice packs to the perineum (Choice C) is helpful for perineal pain and swelling, not for preventing postpartum hemorrhage.
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 14 mL/min is significantly low, indicating poor kidney function and the need for hemodialysis to remove waste products effectively. BUN, serum magnesium, and serum phosphorus levels are important in assessing kidney function and electrolyte balance but are not direct indicators for the initiation of hemodialysis. BUN (blood urea nitrogen) reflects the kidney's ability to filter waste products, serum magnesium levels are important for muscle and nerve function, and serum phosphorus levels are vital for bone health.
A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication to a client who reports a latex allergy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take when preparing to administer an IV medication to a client with a latex allergy is to administer the medication through a latex-free IV port. This measure helps prevent allergic reactions in clients with a known latex allergy. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is not directly related to preventing a latex allergy reaction. Using non-latex gloves (Choice B) is important for protecting the nurse or caregiver from latex exposure but does not prevent the client's allergic reaction. While using latex-free syringes (Choice C) is a good practice, ensuring the IV port is latex-free is more crucial in preventing an allergic response in the client.
What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient who has just returned from surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor the patient's respiratory rate. This assessment is essential as it ensures that the patient is breathing adequately post-surgery. Maintaining a patent airway and adequate oxygenation are the top priorities in the immediate postoperative period. Monitoring blood pressure, checking the surgical site, or monitoring heart rate are important assessments but are not the priority immediately upon the patient's return from surgery.
A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infections. Which statement by a participant indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. This statement indicates a need for further teaching because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. It is important to educate the participant that antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections, not viral ones. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that promote good hygiene practices and infection prevention during pregnancy.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing a pillow between the client's legs is the correct action to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis after hip arthroplasty. This positioning helps maintain proper alignment and stability of the hip joint, reducing the risk of dislocation. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice B) is not recommended after hip arthroplasty as it may strain the hip joint. Maintaining the client in a side-lying position (choice C) or keeping the client's legs elevated (choice D) does not provide the same level of support and alignment as placing a pillow between the legs.
A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, worsening of the condition, or development of complications such as pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are common in clients with pneumonia and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In caring for a client 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to keep the leg abductor pillow in place while in bed. This intervention helps prevent hip dislocation by maintaining proper alignment and stability of the hip joint. Placing a wedge under the client's affected leg (Choice A) may not provide adequate support and could potentially compromise the surgical site. Keeping the client's hip flexed at a 90° angle (Choice B) or positioning the client with the legs extended and the hip externally rotated (Choice C) are not recommended post total hip arthroplasty as they may increase the risk of hip dislocation.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a blood clot, specifically deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication post hip arthroplasty. The warmth and redness are signs of inflammation due to the clot formation. DVT can lead to a pulmonary embolism if not addressed promptly. Monitoring for this complication is crucial in postoperative care. Elevated heart rate, oxygen saturation within normal limits, and a slightly elevated temperature are common findings postoperatively and may not be alarming in the absence of other concerning symptoms.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.
A client is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. While a heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concern related to morphine administration.
A client prescribed clozapine is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that decreases the number of white blood cells. Reporting a sore throat is crucial as it could be a sign of infection. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between clozapine and grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect because clozapine is usually taken without regard to meals. Choice D is incorrect as clozapine is generally taken without food to enhance absorption.
A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hgb 10 g/dL. A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is below the normal range for a pregnant client, indicating possible anemia, which is crucial to report during pregnancy to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Platelets, WBC count, and BUN levels within the listed values are generally within normal ranges for a pregnant individual at 28 weeks of gestation. Platelets play a role in blood clotting, WBC count helps in fighting infections, and BUN measures kidney function, all of which are typically expected to be within normal limits during pregnancy.
A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, worsening of the condition, or development of complications such as pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are common in clients with pneumonia and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In caring for a client 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to keep the leg abductor pillow in place while in bed. This intervention helps prevent hip dislocation by maintaining proper alignment and stability of the hip joint. Placing a wedge under the client's affected leg (Choice A) may not provide adequate support and could potentially compromise the surgical site. Keeping the client's hip flexed at a 90° angle (Choice B) or positioning the client with the legs extended and the hip externally rotated (Choice C) are not recommended post total hip arthroplasty as they may increase the risk of hip dislocation.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a blood clot, specifically deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication post hip arthroplasty. The warmth and redness are signs of inflammation due to the clot formation. DVT can lead to a pulmonary embolism if not addressed promptly. Monitoring for this complication is crucial in postoperative care. Elevated heart rate, oxygen saturation within normal limits, and a slightly elevated temperature are common findings postoperatively and may not be alarming in the absence of other concerning symptoms.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.
A client is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. While a heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concern related to morphine administration.
A client prescribed clozapine is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that decreases the number of white blood cells. Reporting a sore throat is crucial as it could be a sign of infection. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between clozapine and grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect because clozapine is usually taken without regard to meals. Choice D is incorrect as clozapine is generally taken without food to enhance absorption.
A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hgb 10 g/dL. A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is below the normal range for a pregnant client, indicating possible anemia, which is crucial to report during pregnancy to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Platelets, WBC count, and BUN levels within the listed values are generally within normal ranges for a pregnant individual at 28 weeks of gestation. Platelets play a role in blood clotting, WBC count helps in fighting infections, and BUN measures kidney function, all of which are typically expected to be within normal limits during pregnancy.
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