ati exit exam ATI Exit Exam - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the care plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to decreased blood clotting ability. Providing a stool softener is essential to prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, which can lead to bleeding in thrombocytopenic clients. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is a good oral hygiene practice but is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is important for immunocompromised clients to prevent exposure to pathogens but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is a precaution to reduce the risk of infection in immunocompromised clients but does not directly address the complications of thrombocytopenia.

2. A client has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to prevent diuresis at night. Option C is not necessary as hydrochlorothiazide can be taken with or without food. Option D is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is used to lower blood pressure, not increase it.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and requires augmentation of labor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to the use of oxytocin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shoulder presentation is a contraindication for oxytocin because it can increase the risk of complications during labor, such as shoulder dystocia. Diabetes mellitus (Choice A) is not a contraindication for the use of oxytocin. Postterm with oligohydramnios (Choice C) and chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may actually necessitate the use of oxytocin to induce or augment labor for the well-being of the mother and baby.

5. A client receiving warfarin is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking warfarin should avoid aspirin to reduce the risk of bleeding, as both medications can thin the blood. Choice A is incorrect because it is essential to eat a consistent amount of leafy green vegetables to maintain a steady intake of Vitamin K, which can impact warfarin's effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect although important because INR checks are necessary but do not specifically show an understanding of the teaching. Choice C is incorrect because while taking warfarin at the same time each day is beneficial for consistency, it does not directly address the interaction with aspirin.

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