ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. What is the therapeutic action of Phenytoin?
- A. Antidiabetic
- B. Anticonvulsant
- C. Mood stabilizer
- D. Antianxiety agent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin is primarily used as an anticonvulsant to prevent and control seizures. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, making it effective in managing conditions like epilepsy. Antidiabetic medications are used to regulate blood sugar levels, mood stabilizers help manage mood disorders, and antianxiety agents are used to reduce anxiety symptoms, none of which are the primary therapeutic action of Phenytoin.
2. What is the antidote for Warfarin?
- A. Vitamin D
- B. Vitamin C
- C. Vitamin K
- D. Vitamin B6
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for Warfarin toxicity as it helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and administering vitamin K can replenish these factors, thereby counteracting the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Vitamin D, Vitamin C, and Vitamin B6 do not have the specific mechanism to counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, making them incorrect choices.
3. A client has a prescription for Prednisone for the treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. I should take my medication with food.
- C. I will decrease my intake of calcium-rich foods.
- D. I should avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Prednisone can cause hypokalemia, leading to low potassium levels. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods helps prevent this imbalance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Prednisone with food, decreasing calcium-rich foods, or avoiding grapefruit are not specifically related to addressing the side effect of hypokalemia associated with Prednisone.
4. A patient is prescribed warfarin therapy for an artificial heart valve. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for a therapeutic effect of warfarin?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Bleeding time
- D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor Prothrombin time (PT) when a patient is on warfarin therapy. Warfarin affects blood clotting, and PT is used to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication. Hemoglobin (Choice A) is not directly affected by warfarin therapy and does not reflect its therapeutic effect. Bleeding time (Choice C) measures the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a standardized cut and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
5. A staff educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence medication metabolism with a group of nurses at an in-service presentation. Which of the following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication dosages? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Increased renal secretion
- B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes
- C. Liver failure
- D. Peripheral vascular disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Liver failure impairs metabolism, leading to increased medication concentrations. When liver function is compromised, lower dosages are necessary to prevent adverse effects. Increased renal secretion is not a reason for lower medication dosages, as it primarily affects excretion rather than metabolism. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes would usually require higher dosages to achieve the desired effect. Peripheral vascular disease does not directly impact medication metabolism or dosage requirements.
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