ati pharmacology proctored exam 2024 ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024 - Nursing Elites
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. When educating a client who has a prescription for Propranolol, what instruction should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for Propranolol is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abrupt cessation can result in rebound hypertension or other cardiac complications. It is crucial for the client to taper off the medication gradually under healthcare provider supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because Propranolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as discontinuing the medication based on fatigue alone is not advisable without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because while Propranolol can decrease heart rate, it is not the primary instruction to provide in this scenario.

2. A patient is prescribed warfarin therapy for an artificial heart valve. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for a therapeutic effect of warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor Prothrombin time (PT) when a patient is on warfarin therapy. Warfarin affects blood clotting, and PT is used to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication. Hemoglobin (Choice A) is not directly affected by warfarin therapy and does not reflect its therapeutic effect. Bleeding time (Choice C) measures the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a standardized cut and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.

4. A client has a new prescription for Nevirapine, an NNRTI. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement to include in discharge teaching about Nevirapine, an NNRTI, is to advise the client to avoid alcohol while taking this medication. Alcohol can interact with Nevirapine and lead to potential adverse effects or decreased effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because Nevirapine should be taken without food or on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is a general recommendation for most medications but not specifically for Nevirapine. Choice D is incorrect as Nevirapine should not be taken on an empty stomach.

5. A client with a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Grapefruit juice can increase blood levels of verapamil, leading to increased effects and potentially serious side effects such as hypotension or bradycardia. It is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent these adverse reactions. Choice B is incorrect because verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically lowers heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as verapamil does not cause urine discoloration. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous.

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