ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client has a prescription for digoxin. The client should be monitored for which of the following findings as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Visual disturbances
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as yellow-tinged vision or seeing halos around lights, are common signs of digoxin toxicity. These symptoms should be reported immediately to healthcare providers for further evaluation and management. Tachycardia (Choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not common manifestations of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is visual disturbances.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Shortness of breath.
- D. Tachycardia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.
3. A client with a UTI and a history of recurrent infections asks why the provider has not yet prescribed an antibiotic. The nurse should explain that the provider has to wait for the results of which of the following laboratory tests to identify which antibiotic to prescribe?
- A. Gram stain
- B. Culture
- C. Sensitivity
- D. Specific gravity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the case of a UTI, a sensitivity test is crucial as it identifies the most effective antibiotic to target the specific microorganism causing the infection. This test helps in prescribing the appropriate antibiotic for successful treatment and preventing antibiotic resistance. While a Gram stain and culture are important in diagnosing a UTI, the sensitivity test specifically determines the most suitable antibiotic. Specific gravity, on the other hand, is not related to identifying the appropriate antibiotic for a UTI.
4. Which of the following types of insulin is classified as 'long-acting'?
- A. Lispro (Humalog)
- B. NPH (Humulin N)
- C. Regular insulin (Humulin R)
- D. Glargine (Lantus)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Glargine (Lantus). Glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin due to its slow, steady release over an extended period, making it suitable for basal insulin requirements. It has a duration of action that can last up to 24 hours, helping to maintain stable blood sugar levels throughout the day. Lispro (Humalog) is a rapid-acting insulin, NPH (Humulin N) is an intermediate-acting insulin, and Regular insulin (Humulin R) is a short-acting insulin, so they are not classified as long-acting insulins.
5. Which of the following is commonly used to treat migraine headaches?
- A. Beta-blockers
- B. Cholinesterase Inhibitors
- C. ACE inhibitors
- D. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) are often used in the management of migraine headaches due to their ability to help prevent or reduce the frequency and intensity of migraines. They work by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, which can help in controlling migraine symptoms. While beta-blockers are also sometimes used in migraine prevention, anti-epileptic drugs are more commonly associated with migraine treatment. Cholinesterase Inhibitors are not typically used for migraine headaches, as they are more commonly associated with conditions like Alzheimer's disease. ACE inhibitors are a type of medication used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure, but they are not a first-line treatment for migraines.
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