final exam pathophysiology Final Exam Pathophysiology - Nursing Elites
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Final Exam Pathophysiology

1. A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hemolytic anemia. Normocytic-normochromic anemia is a type of anemia characterized by normal-sized and normal-colored red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed prematurely, leading to normocytic-normochromic anemia. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice A) is characterized by ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow. Pernicious anemia (Choice C) is due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice D) is characterized by microcytic-hypochromic red blood cells.

2. A female patient is concerned about the side effects of oral contraceptives. What should the nurse explain as a common side effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight gain. Weight gain is a common side effect of oral contraceptives due to hormonal changes. It is essential for healthcare providers to inform patients about this possibility to manage expectations. Choice A, increased energy levels, is not a common side effect of oral contraceptives. Choice B, decreased libido, can be a side effect for some individuals but is not as common as weight gain. Choice D, hair loss, is not typically associated with oral contraceptives. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to address the patient's concerns by discussing the more prevalent side effects like weight gain.

3. A patient has developed a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx. What defense mechanism is most affected by this homeostatic change?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, a decubitus ulcer on the coccyx indicates a breakdown of the skin's integrity due to prolonged pressure. The skin is the primary defense mechanism of the body against external pathogens. When the skin is compromised, it can lead to infections and other complications. The mucous membrane (Choice A) plays a role in protecting internal surfaces, not the skin. The respiratory tract (Choice B) is involved in breathing and not directly related to the skin's defense. The gastrointestinal tract (Choice D) is responsible for digestion and absorption of nutrients, not the primary defense mechanism against external threats like the skin.

4. Which immunoglobulin presents the first challenge to the antigen?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: IgM is the first immunoglobulin to challenge the antigen during an immune response. IgM is the primary antibody produced during the initial or primary immune response. It is efficient in agglutination and complement activation, making it crucial in the early stages of defense. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and secretions. IgG is the most abundant antibody in circulation and is involved in secondary immune responses. IgE is primarily associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections. Therefore, IgM is the correct choice as it acts first during the immune response, while the other immunoglobulins have different roles and functions.

5. What instruction should the nurse include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in this patient's health education regarding chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) for malaria prophylaxis is to “Take your pill on the same day each week.” This is essential because chloroquine is typically taken once a week on the same day to ensure consistent protection against malaria. Choice B is incorrect because while rashes are a possible side effect of chloroquine, they are not a usual occurrence and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because chloroquine does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as chloroquine is typically administered orally, not by injection.

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