ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. Which of the following is the most likely indication for the use of immunosuppressant agents?
- A. Intractable seizure disorders
- B. Increased intracranial pressure
- C. Organ transplantation
- D. HIV/AIDS with multiple drug resistance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Organ transplantation. Immunosuppressant agents are commonly used in organ transplant recipients to prevent organ rejection by suppressing the immune system. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Intractable seizure disorders are often managed with antiepileptic drugs, increased intracranial pressure is managed through various means like surgery and medications, and HIV/AIDS with multiple drug resistance is typically treated with antiretroviral therapy, not immunosuppressant agents.
2. A patient with hypogonadism is being treated with testosterone gel. What application instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Apply the gel to the face and neck for maximum absorption.
- B. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms and allow it to dry completely before dressing.
- C. Apply the gel to the genitals for improved results.
- D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Testosterone gel should be applied to the chest or upper arms and allowed to dry completely before dressing to avoid transfer to others. Applying the gel to the face, neck, genitals, scalp, or back is not recommended as these areas may lead to unintentional transfer to others, inappropriate absorption, or potential side effects. Choice A is incorrect as applying the gel to the face and neck can lead to unwanted transfer. Choice C is incorrect as applying the gel to the genitals is not the recommended site for application. Choice D is incorrect as the scalp and back are not appropriate sites for applying testosterone gel.
3. Which of the following steps occurs first during hemostasis?
- A. Vascular spasm
- B. Platelet plug
- C. Coagulation
- D. Dissolution of the clot
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Vascular spasm is the initial step in hemostasis, where blood vessels constrict to reduce blood flow to the injured area. This constriction helps limit blood loss until further steps like platelet plug formation and coagulation can take place. Platelet plug formation and coagulation occur after the vascular spasm, making them incorrect choices. Dissolution of the clot happens much later in the healing process, after the injury has sufficiently healed.
4. Which of the following best describes Cushing’s syndrome?
- A. Hypersecretion of growth hormone
- B. Excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands
- C. Insufficient production of insulin
- D. Increased levels of ACTH
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cushing’s syndrome is characterized by the excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal glands, not growth hormone (Choice A), insulin (Choice C), or ACTH (Choice D). The increased cortisol levels lead to a variety of symptoms associated with Cushing’s syndrome.
5. A woman suffers from amenorrhea. Which of the following medications will most likely be prescribed?
- A. Testosterone
- B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
- C. Estrogen
- D. Lactate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Estrogen is the correct answer. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is often due to hormonal imbalances. Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Prescribing estrogen can help address these hormonal imbalances and restore menstrual cycles. Testosterone (Choice A) is not typically prescribed for amenorrhea in women as it can further disrupt hormonal balance. Follicle-stimulating hormone (Choice B) is involved in stimulating ovulation and follicle development, not the primary treatment for amenorrhea. Lactate (Choice D) is not a medication used to treat amenorrhea.
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