ati pharmacology proctored exam 2019 ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019 - Nursing Elites
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.

2. A healthcare professional is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase intake of foods high in potassium.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium depletion. The healthcare professional should instruct the client to increase the intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide therapy. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Choice C is unrelated to the side effects of Furosemide. Choice D, while important for overall health, is not directly related to the side effects of Furosemide.

3. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to eat a diet high in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Consuming foods rich in potassium can help maintain normal potassium levels in the body and counteract the potential side effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning does not specifically relate to its effectiveness or side effects, avoiding foods high in magnesium is not a primary concern when taking furosemide, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a general recommendation for individuals taking furosemide.

4. A client is receiving treatment with carboplatin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Carboplatin is known to cause ototoxicity as a serious adverse effect. It is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for any signs or symptoms of hearing loss or other auditory issues to address them promptly. Incorrect Choices Rationale: A) Hyperglycemia is not a common side effect associated with carboplatin. C) Hypertension is not a typical finding to monitor for specifically related to carboplatin treatment. D) Bradycardia is not a primary concern when monitoring a client on carboplatin.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydralazine is a vasodilator that can cause reflex tachycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse and report any significant increases. Choice B, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Hydralazine. Choice C, Hyponatremia, and Choice D, Constipation, are also not typically associated with Hydralazine use.

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