Free ATI RN Exit practice for ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet (ATI RN). Answer 81 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress trac
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to limit saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories. This recommendation is crucial for clients with hypertension to lower cholesterol levels and promote heart health. Choice A, limiting sodium intake to 4 grams per day, is important for hypertension but not the best recommendation compared to limiting saturated fats. Choice B, limiting protein intake to 80 grams per day, is not a primary dietary concern for hypertension. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day, is not a standard recommendation for hypertension management.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Low back pain. Low back pain is a common sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, indicating the destruction of red blood cells. This finding requires immediate intervention as it can lead to serious complications such as renal failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Chills (choice C) can be seen in febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions. Distended neck veins (choice D) are more indicative of fluid overload rather than a hemolytic reaction.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Teach the client pursed-lip breathing technique. Pursed-lip breathing helps clients with COPD improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath. Choice A is incorrect because deep breathing and coughing are not recommended every 4 hours for clients with COPD. Choice B is incorrect because a diet high in carbohydrates and low in protein is not specifically indicated for COPD. Choice D is incorrect because fluid restriction is not a standard intervention for COPD unless the client has comorbid conditions that necessitate it.
A nurse is caring for an infant who has coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the nurse identify as an expected finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Weak femoral pulses are an expected finding in an infant with coarctation of the aorta. The narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities, resulting in weak or absent femoral pulses. Frequent nosebleeds (Choice B) are not typically associated with coarctation of the aorta. Upper extremity hypotension (Choice C) is not a common finding in coarctation of the aorta; instead, blood pressure is usually elevated in the upper extremities. Increased intracranial pressure (Choice D) is not directly related to coarctation of the aorta.
A client at 14 weeks gestation reports feelings of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to use open-ended questions that allow the client to explore and express their feelings. Choice A encourages the client to describe their feelings, fostering open communication and providing an opportunity for the client to express themselves freely. Choices B and C do not directly address the client's feelings and may not promote open communication. Choice D focuses on the timing of the feelings rather than exploring the feelings themselves, making it a less therapeutic response.
A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Jugular vein distention is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure due to fluid overload in the pulmonary circulation. This occurs because the heart's left side is unable to pump effectively, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and leading to blood backing up into the pulmonary circulation. Peripheral edema (choice A) and dependent edema (choice D) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure where blood pools in the systemic circulation, causing swelling in the extremities. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically a direct consequence of left-sided heart failure; instead, tachycardia is more commonly seen as the heart compensates for its reduced efficiency.
A client sustained a major burn over 20% of the body. What intervention should the nurse implement to meet the client's nutritional needs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet for a client with major burns. This type of diet is essential to support healing and recovery. High-protein intake is crucial as it helps in tissue repair and wound healing, while high-calorie intake is necessary to meet the increased metabolic demands of the body during the healing process. Keeping track of calorie intake (Choice A) is important but doesn't address the specific needs of a burn patient. Providing a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet (Choice B) is not suitable for burn patients as they require adequate protein for wound healing. Scheduling meals at 6-hour intervals (Choice C) may be helpful for maintaining a consistent eating schedule, but it is not as crucial as providing the correct high-protein, high-calorie diet.
A client with a colostomy needs optimal skin integrity. What action should the nurse take to promote this?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To promote optimal skin integrity in a client with a colostomy, using a barrier cream to protect the skin from the irritating effects of the colostomy pouch contents is essential. Cleansing the peristomal skin with alcohol (Choice A) can be too harsh and drying for the skin. Changing the colostomy pouch every 3 days (Choice B) is important for hygiene but using a barrier cream is more directly related to skin protection. Cleaning the stoma with hydrogen peroxide (Choice D) is not recommended as it can be too abrasive for the sensitive stoma area.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL is higher than expected and should be reported to prevent hyperglycemia complications. High blood glucose levels can lead to hyperglycemia, causing various issues such as increased risk of infection and delayed wound healing. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client receiving continuous enteral feedings and do not require immediate reporting.
A client requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it ensures that the decision to use seclusion is based on appropriate justifications and helps in monitoring the client's progress and response to the intervention. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is not directly related to the need for seclusion. Discussing the client's behavior prior to seclusion (Choice C) may not be appropriate at the moment when immediate action is required to prevent harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but not as immediate as documenting the behavior prior to seclusion.
What is the best initial action when a patient presents with confusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient presents with confusion, the best initial action is to perform a neurological assessment. This assessment helps in identifying potential causes of confusion such as neurological issues, infections, metabolic abnormalities, or medication side effects. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on assessment findings, but it is not the first step. Administering electrolytes (Choice C) would also depend on the assessment results. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) may be indicated later in the diagnostic process but is not the initial action when a patient presents with confusion.
A nurse is assessing a client who has hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Decreased deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients with hypothyroidism due to slowed metabolic processes. The other choices, such as bradycardia (slow heart rate), weight gain, and hypertension (high blood pressure) are not typically associated with hypothyroidism. Bradycardia can occur due to the decreased metabolic rate, but it is not a consistent finding. Weight gain is common but not universal, and hypertension is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for atorvastatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking this medication.' Grapefruit juice can increase the risk of toxicity when taken with atorvastatin. Choice B is incorrect because atorvastatin should be taken without regard to meals. Choice C is incorrect because atorvastatin can be taken at any time of the day. Choice D is incorrect because atorvastatin does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
What is the priority intervention for a patient with a severe allergic reaction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions because it rapidly reverses the symptoms of anaphylaxis by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and relaxing airway muscles. Corticosteroids, although helpful to reduce inflammation, are not the priority in the acute management of severe allergic reactions. Oxygen may be needed to support breathing, but it is not the initial priority. Antihistamines are not as effective as epinephrine in treating severe allergic reactions and should not be the first intervention.
A client with a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Clients with Crohn's disease require routine colonoscopies to monitor disease progression and complications. This helps healthcare providers assess the status of the disease and make informed treatment decisions. Choice A is incorrect because while fiber may be beneficial for some digestive conditions, it can exacerbate symptoms in Crohn's disease. Choice C is incorrect as whole grains can be a good source of nutrients unless they individually trigger symptoms in the client. Choice D is also incorrect since a low-fat diet is not a specific requirement for managing Crohn's disease.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV fluid bolus of 500 mL over 4 hours to a client who is dehydrated. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Setting the IV pump to 125 mL/hr ensures the correct infusion rate for delivering 500 mL over 4 hours. To calculate the mL/hr rate, divide the total volume to be infused (500 mL) by the total time for infusion (4 hours): 500 mL / 4 hours = 125 mL/hr. Choice A (75 mL/hr) is too low and would result in an insufficient infusion rate, potentially delaying fluid resuscitation. Choice B (100 mL/hr) would also be too low and not deliver the fluid within the specified time frame. Choice D (150 mL/hr) is too high and would infuse the fluid too quickly, potentially causing fluid overload and complications.
A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.
What is the appropriate nursing action for a patient experiencing an acute allergic reaction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The appropriate nursing action for a patient experiencing an acute allergic reaction is to administer antihistamines. Antihistamines work by blocking the action of histamine, a chemical released during an allergic reaction, and can help relieve symptoms such as itching, swelling, and hives. Corticosteroids are used for severe allergic reactions not responding to antihistamines, as they have anti-inflammatory properties. Oxygen is administered in cases of respiratory distress, while bronchodilators are used for bronchospasms. However, the first-line intervention for an acute allergic reaction is antihistamines.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to hold their breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication allows it to reach deeper into the lungs for maximum effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because taking one puff every 5 minutes may lead to overuse of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the inhaler for only 2 seconds may not provide adequate mixing of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because exhaling forcefully after each puff may reduce the amount of medication that reaches the lungs.
A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Dependent edema is a common finding in clients with pneumonia due to fluid retention and decreased mobility. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia. Crackles in the lung bases (Choice B) are more commonly heard in conditions like heart failure or pulmonary edema. A productive cough (Choice D) can be seen in pneumonia but is not as specific as dependent edema.
A client receiving warfarin is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because clients taking warfarin should avoid aspirin to reduce the risk of bleeding, as both medications can thin the blood. Choice A is incorrect because it is essential to eat a consistent amount of leafy green vegetables to maintain a steady intake of Vitamin K, which can impact warfarin's effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect although important because INR checks are necessary but do not specifically show an understanding of the teaching. Choice C is incorrect because while taking warfarin at the same time each day is beneficial for consistency, it does not directly address the interaction with aspirin.
A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can trigger GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating three large meals each day can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, lying down after meals can worsen reflux due to gravity, and increasing dairy product intake may lead to higher fat consumption, which can also trigger GERD symptoms.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because bending at the hips can dislocate the hip joint in clients who have had a total hip arthroplasty. This movement should be avoided to prevent complications post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are all correct statements for a client who has had a total hip arthroplasty. Avoiding prolonged sitting, crossing legs, and using a raised toilet seat are all appropriate measures to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.
A nurse is assessing a client who is immediately postoperative following a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the following should the nurse expect to administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Calcium gluconate is the correct answer because it is administered to treat hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy. After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, which can lead to a decrease in calcium levels. Administering calcium gluconate helps to raise calcium levels. Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is not typically indicated for immediate postoperative care following a subtotal thyroidectomy. Potassium chloride (Choice C) is not directly related to the common complications of this specific surgery. Sodium phosphate (Choice D) is not typically used to address immediate postoperative issues post-thyroidectomy.
A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to inject the medication into the client's abdomen. Enoxaparin is a medication that should be administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly. Massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended as it can cause bruising or discomfort. Injecting the medication into the deltoid muscle is also incorrect because enoxaparin should be given in areas of adipose tissue, such as the abdomen, to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Mouth sores. Mouth sores are a common side effect of radiation therapy, especially when the treatment is focused on the head or neck area. Weight gain is not typically associated with radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to side effects like nausea and loss of appetite. Hyperpigmentation is not a common finding related to radiation therapy. Increased saliva production is not a typical side effect of radiation therapy; instead, clients may experience dry mouth.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Elevated serum creatinine levels are indicative of decreased kidney function and potential progression of chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not signify immediate concerns related to kidney disease. Urine output of 80 mL/hr is appropriate, a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is considered prehypertensive but not acutely concerning, and a heart rate of 72/min falls within the normal range.
How should a healthcare professional administer a subcutaneous injection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct technique for administering subcutaneous injections is to insert the needle at a 45-degree angle. This angle ensures that the medication is delivered into the subcutaneous tissue, which is located just below the skin. Inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, while using a Z-track method is specific to intramuscular injections to prevent leakage of medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Inserting the needle at a 15-degree angle would not reach the subcutaneous tissue effectively.
During an in-service about nursing leadership, what information should the nurse include about an effective leader?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An effective leader advocates for the unit's success and its members. Choice B is incorrect because prioritizing staff requests over client needs does not align with effective leadership, which should focus on client-centered care. Choice C is incorrect as sharing personal opinions to influence the group's values can be biased and may not reflect the best interest of the team. Choice D is incorrect because while providing client care is essential, effective leadership involves more than routine tasks and includes guiding and supporting the team.
A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Tremors can indicate lithium toxicity, which should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Tremors are a significant sign of lithium toxicity and can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Increased thirst, weight gain, and diarrhea are common side effects of lithium but are not typically indicative of toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting tremors as it requires immediate attention.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is prescribed home oxygen. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement for the nurse to make is to advise the client to check the oxygen equipment daily for proper function. This is crucial to ensure the client's home oxygen therapy is working effectively and safely. Choice B is incorrect because adjusting the oxygen flow rate without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect as oxygen tanks should be stored upright, not lying flat. Choice D is incorrect and unsafe advice, as smoking near an oxygen source can lead to a fire hazard.
A client with acute diverticulitis should have which intervention included in the care plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with acute diverticulitis is to initiate a low-fiber diet. A low-fiber diet helps manage acute diverticulitis by reducing irritation to the colon, allowing it to heal. Administering a cleansing enema (Choice A) can worsen diverticulitis by increasing pressure within the colon. Applying moist heat to the abdomen (Choice C) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying cause. Providing a clear liquid diet (Choice D) is not ideal for diverticulitis management as it lacks the necessary nutrients for healing and may not provide enough bulk to prevent further irritation.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to monitor for black, tarry stools while taking clopidogrel. This is important because it helps detect gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid foods high in fat while taking clopidogrel. Choice C is incorrect as grapefruit juice interaction is not a concern with clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as clopidogrel can be taken with or without food.
A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider instruct the client to avoid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, oatmeal. Oatmeal contains insoluble fiber, which can exacerbate the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Choices A, B, and C are not typically problematic for individuals with IBS. Lean cuts of pork, low-fat yogurt, and white bread are generally well-tolerated and may even be recommended as part of a balanced diet for individuals with IBS.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Clients should eat a snack when their blood glucose level is low, typically below 70-100 mg/dL, not when it is high. Eating a snack when the blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL can exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice A is correct as checking blood glucose levels regularly is important in managing diabetes. Choice C is also correct as adherence to prescribed insulin therapy is crucial. Choice D is incorrect as physical activity can help lower blood glucose levels, especially when they are above the target range.
A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client with a prescription for digoxin. Which result requires withholding the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L) can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate a need to withhold digoxin.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to prevent infection when caring for a client with a new peripheral IV catheter is to change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours. Shaving the hair at the insertion site can actually increase the risk of infection by causing microabrasions in the skin. While cleansing the site with povidone-iodine is important before insertion, it is not necessary to continue doing so once the IV is in place. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the dressing is crucial for maintaining aseptic technique but does not directly prevent infection related to the IV site itself.
A nurse is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds. When assessing a newborn, it is essential to auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds to accurately determine their heart rate. This method allows for a more precise measurement, considering the variability in heart rates in newborns. Choice A is incorrect because tympanic thermometers are not typically used for newborns due to their ear canals being small and not fully developed. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the pinna forward is not necessary for assessing the apical pulse. Choice D is incorrect as measuring head circumference involves a different assessment and is not relevant to determining the heart rate of a newborn.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of opioid toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a common sign of opioid toxicity. When a client is experiencing opioid toxicity, the respiratory system is usually the most affected, leading to a decrease in the respiratory rate (bradypnea). Tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) are not typical manifestations of opioid toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradypnea.
What is the most appropriate action when a patient experiences a fall in the hospital?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess the patient for injuries. When a patient experiences a fall in the hospital, the immediate concern is to check for any injuries that may require urgent care. Calling for help can be done after assessing the patient to ensure appropriate assistance is provided. Documenting the fall is important for the patient's medical record, but it is not the most immediate action needed. Notifying the healthcare provider can come after the initial assessment to update them on the situation.
Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient receiving morphine?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, respiratory depression. When a patient is receiving morphine, respiratory depression is the most concerning side effect because it can lead to serious complications, including respiratory arrest and even death. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status is crucial to ensure early detection of any signs of respiratory depression. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although hypotension, bradycardia, and hypertension can occur as side effects of morphine, they are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression in this context.
What is the initial intervention for a patient with chest pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct initial intervention for a patient with chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which can be beneficial in case the chest pain is due to a cardiac event. Administering nitroglycerin may follow aspirin administration to help relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels. Providing pain relief is a general approach and may not address the underlying cause of chest pain. Preparing for surgery would not be the initial intervention for chest pain unless there are specific indications for immediate surgical intervention.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. An elevated serum creatinine level can indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to report before administering enalapril. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can affect kidney function, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the initiation of enalapril therapy.
A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Productive cough with clear sputum.' Clients with COPD often have a chronic productive cough with thick, often purulent sputum. This sputum can be white, yellow, green, or clear. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxygen saturation may decrease with exertion in COPD due to impaired gas exchange. Pursed-lip breathing is used to control dyspnea, not directly related to increased saturation with exercise. Clubbing of the fingers is typically seen in conditions such as cyanotic heart disease or lung cancer.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable cardioverter defibrillator. Which of the following statements demonstrates understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Wearing loose clothing around the ICD is essential to avoid putting pressure on the device, which can interfere with its function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Soaking in a tub rather than showering is not relevant to ICD care. Stopping the use of a microwave oven is not necessary with an ICD. Holding a cellphone on the same side as the ICD is not recommended as it can potentially interfere with the device.
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In caring for a client with schizophrenia experiencing delusions, it is essential to focus on the client's feelings rather than directly addressing or challenging the delusions. By focusing on the client's emotions, the nurse can build trust and rapport without reinforcing the delusions. Choice A is incorrect because directly telling the client that their delusions are not real may lead to confrontation or mistrust. Choice B is incorrect as encouraging exploration of the delusions may further validate them. Choice D is incorrect because challenging the client's delusions can escalate the situation and damage the therapeutic relationship.
A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.
A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The nonstress test typically takes about 10 minutes and evaluates the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Having a full bladder or fasting for 12 hours is not required for a nonstress test. Checking blood glucose levels is not part of the nonstress test procedure.
A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.
A client in active labor requests pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During active labor, nonpharmacologic comfort measures like placing the client in a warm shower are effective for pain relief. Ondansetron (Choice A) is an antiemetic and not used for pain management during labor. Applying fundal pressure (Choice C) can cause harm and is not recommended due to the risk of uterine rupture. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice D) is not ideal in labor as it can decrease blood flow to the placenta and is associated with increased maternal complications.
A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.
When documenting an incorrect dose of medication administered, which fact related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should document the time the medication was given in the client's medical record when an incorrect dose is administered. Recording the time is crucial for establishing the sequence of events accurately. Choices B, C, and D, though important, are not directly relevant to documenting the incident of administering an incorrect dose of medication. The client's response to the medication, the actual dose administered, and the reason for the error may be documented for overall patient care but are not specifically required in the incident report for an incorrect dose.
A nurse is discussing group treatment and therapy with a client. The nurse should include which of the following as being a characteristic of a therapeutic group?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Therapeutic groups indeed encourage members to focus on particular issues. This focus helps individuals address specific concerns, work through challenges, and support one another in a structured setting. Choice A is incorrect because therapeutic groups typically promote a democratic structure that values input from all members rather than an autocratic one. Choice C is incorrect as therapeutic groups can be led by various mental health professionals, not solely by licensed psychiatrists. Choice D is incorrect; therapeutic groups aim to foster independent growth and self-reliance rather than promoting dependent relationships.
Which of the following is a sign of digoxin toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia, or a slower than normal heart rate, is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, but an excess of digoxin in the body can lead to toxicity. This toxicity can manifest as various symptoms, with bradycardia being one of the most common ones. Hypertension (high blood pressure) and tachycardia (fast heart rate) are not typical signs of digoxin toxicity. Tachypnea, which refers to rapid breathing, is also not a common sign of digoxin toxicity.
Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A client presenting with symptoms of a stroke, such as slurred speech, disorientation, and headache, requires immediate attention due to the possibility of a neurological emergency. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not present with symptoms as urgent as those of a potential stroke. Dislocated shoulder, sickle cell disease with joint pain, and confusion with febrile illness can be addressed after ensuring the client with stroke-like symptoms receives prompt evaluation and intervention.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Red-tinged urine with numerous clots. This finding should be reported because it indicates excessive bleeding following a TURP procedure. Passing small clots in the urine (choice A) is expected post-TURP. Continuous bladder irrigation (choice B) is a standard procedure after TURP to prevent clot retention. Urine output of 50 mL/hr (choice D) is within the expected range postoperatively and does not indicate a complication.
How should a healthcare professional monitor for infection in a patient with a central line?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct answer: A. Checking the central line dressing daily is crucial to monitor for signs of infection around the insertion site. This practice helps in early detection of any changes such as redness, swelling, or discharge, which are indicators of a potential infection. Monitoring for signs of redness (choice B) is limited as redness alone may not always indicate an infection; other symptoms like discharge and tenderness should also be observed. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice C) is not directly related to monitoring central line infections. Monitoring temperature (choice D) is important for detecting systemic signs of infection but may not specifically indicate an infection related to the central line site.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute indicates severe kidney dysfunction, necessitating hemodialysis. The other options, BUN of 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus of 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not serve as indications for hemodialysis.
A client is receiving radiation therapy for cancer. Which of the following skin care instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to avoid exposing the irradiated area to direct sunlight. Direct sunlight can further damage the skin during radiation therapy. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol-based lotions can irritate the skin further. Choice C is incorrect because mild soap and water can be drying to the skin. Choice D is incorrect because applying ice packs can cause additional skin damage during radiation therapy.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering lorazepam is the appropriate intervention for a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam helps reduce agitation and prevent complications during this withdrawal phase. Choice A, providing a low-sodium diet, is not directly related to managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Choice C, keeping the client in a supine position, is not necessary and may not address the client's withdrawal symptoms. Choice D, placing the client in restraints, should only be considered if the client is at risk of harming themselves or others, but it is not the primary intervention for managing alcohol withdrawal.
A patient refused a newly opened fentanyl patch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient refuses a newly opened fentanyl patch, the nurse should ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch. This action ensures accountability, proper protocol, and prevents any potential diversion or misuse of the medication. Disposing of the patch in a sharps container (Choice B) is not sufficient as it does not address the need for witness accountability. Sending the patch back to the pharmacy (Choice C) may not be appropriate without proper documentation and witness. Simply documenting the refusal and removing the patch (Choice D) may lack the necessary verification of proper disposal.
What is the most important assessment for a patient post-surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor vital signs post-surgery. Vital signs provide crucial information about a patient's physiological status, helping detect early signs of complications such as shock, bleeding, or infection. Checking the surgical site for bleeding is important but falls secondary to monitoring vital signs, which give a broader overview of the patient's condition. Checking for abnormal breath sounds and skin color are also important assessments, but they are not as immediate and general as monitoring vital signs in detecting various post-surgical complications.
A nurse is preparing to administer blood to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor first before administering blood. This is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Checking the client's identification bracelet (Choice A) is important but should come after verifying blood type. Obtaining vital signs (Choice B) and initiating the transfusion slowly (Choice C) are important steps but verifying blood type is the priority to ensure safe blood administration.
A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common sign of hypoglycemia due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Tachycardia (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Dry mouth (choice B) is not a typical finding in hypoglycemia but may be seen in hyperglycemia. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a typical sign of hypoglycemia and is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. For a stage 2 pressure injury, maintaining a moist environment is crucial for healing. Hydrocolloid dressings help achieve this by promoting autolytic debridement and creating a barrier against bacteria while allowing the wound to heal. Applying a dry dressing (Choice A) may not provide the necessary moisture for healing. Cleansing the wound with normal saline (Choice B) is essential, but a hydrocolloid dressing is more specific for promoting healing in this case. Performing debridement as needed (Choice C) is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, as they involve partial-thickness skin loss without slough or eschar.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct recommendation for a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is to consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber promotes regularity and helps reduce IBS symptoms by aiding digestion and preventing constipation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of milk products may exacerbate IBS symptoms in some individuals due to lactose intolerance. Sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup can worsen IBS symptoms as it may cause bloating and gas. Increasing intake of foods high in gluten may also be problematic for individuals with IBS as gluten-containing foods can trigger symptoms like abdominal pain and diarrhea.
What is the first action to take for a patient experiencing a seizure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first action a nurse should take for a patient experiencing a seizure is to protect the patient's head. This is crucial to prevent head injuries during the seizure. Administering anticonvulsant medication may be necessary but is not the first action. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury as the patient may bite down during a seizure. Restraint is not recommended as it can lead to further harm.
What is the most appropriate method to assess a patient's level of consciousness?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Using the Glasgow Coma Scale. The Glasgow Coma Scale is a standardized tool used to assess a patient's level of consciousness by evaluating their eye response, verbal response, and motor response. This scale provides a numeric value that helps in determining the severity of brain injury or altered mental status. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while assessing the patient's orientation, checking pupillary response, and monitoring vital signs are important components of a comprehensive patient assessment, they do not specifically target the assessment of consciousness level, which is best done using the Glasgow Coma Scale.
A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Administering antibiotics late must be reported as it can compromise the effectiveness of the treatment. This delay can lead to subtherapeutic levels of the antibiotic in the client's system, potentially reducing its efficacy in combating the infection. Choice B, a client vomiting shortly after taking medication, should be noted but does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is a frequent occurrence. It could indicate a possible adverse reaction or intolerance to the medication. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication slightly earlier, do not involve medication errors or deviations that pose immediate risks to the client's health, so they do not require incident reports.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.
A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.
A nurse is preparing to administer an enema to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assist the client to the left Sims' position when administering an enema. This position helps facilitate the flow of the enema solution into the rectum. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (Choice A) is not ideal for administering an enema. Inserting the enema tubing 2.5 cm (1 in) into the rectum (Choice C) is incorrect as it should be inserted 7.5-10 cm (3-4 in) for an adult. Lubricating the tip of the enema tubing with petroleum jelly (Choice D) is a correct step to ease insertion but is not the most critical action among the choices provided.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving foot care education from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'Trim toenails straight across.' In clients with diabetes, trimming toenails straight across is important to prevent ingrown toenails, reducing the risk of infections. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice A) can lead to dry skin and potentially cause skin breakdown in diabetic clients. While wearing cotton socks (choice B) is beneficial for good foot hygiene, it is not as crucial as trimming toenails correctly. Applying lotion to feet after bathing (choice C) is helpful for moisturizing the skin, but the emphasis should be on nail care to prevent complications like ingrown toenails.
A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because weight monitoring is crucial for furosemide due to fluid loss. Option C is incorrect as furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option D is incorrect because furosemide is best taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.
A client has a new diagnosis of COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath and improves oxygenation. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips, which helps keep airways open. Option A is incorrect as breathing rapidly through the mouth when using the incentive spirometer can lead to hyperventilation. Option C is incorrect because it is important for clients with COPD to stay hydrated by drinking fluids between meals, but not during meals which can cause bloating and discomfort. Option D is incorrect as diaphragmatic breathing, though beneficial, is not the preferred technique for managing dyspnea in COPD; pursed-lip breathing is more effective.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Taking insulin at the same time each day helps maintain stable blood glucose levels and prevent complications.
A client is 2 hours postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A pain level of 8 is high and may indicate inadequate pain control or complications following surgery. Monitoring and managing pain is crucial postoperatively to ensure patient comfort and prevent complications. A heart rate of 88/min, capillary refill of 2 seconds, and a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) are within normal ranges and do not typically require immediate reporting unless in the context of other concerning signs or symptoms.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Swelling of the arm above the insertion site is concerning as it can indicate complications like thrombosis, which require immediate attention. Redness at the insertion site is common and expected in the initial stages. A bruised area around the insertion site may result from the insertion procedure and is usually not alarming unless it worsens or becomes larger. A temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is within the normal range and is not directly related to PICC complications.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Taking insulin at the same time each day helps maintain stable blood glucose levels and prevent complications.
A client is 2 hours postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A pain level of 8 is high and may indicate inadequate pain control or complications following surgery. Monitoring and managing pain is crucial postoperatively to ensure patient comfort and prevent complications. A heart rate of 88/min, capillary refill of 2 seconds, and a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) are within normal ranges and do not typically require immediate reporting unless in the context of other concerning signs or symptoms.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Swelling of the arm above the insertion site is concerning as it can indicate complications like thrombosis, which require immediate attention. Redness at the insertion site is common and expected in the initial stages. A bruised area around the insertion site may result from the insertion procedure and is usually not alarming unless it worsens or becomes larger. A temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is within the normal range and is not directly related to PICC complications.
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