cardiovascular system exam questions Cardiovascular System Exam Questions - Nursing Elites
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions

1. What is a condition where the blood flow to the brain is temporarily blocked, often referred to as a mini-stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is the correct answer. A TIA is often referred to as a mini-stroke because it is caused by a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. This blockage resolves on its own, typically within minutes to hours, leading to temporary symptoms similar to a stroke. Option B, 'Stroke,' is incorrect because a stroke involves a more prolonged interruption of blood flow to the brain. Option C, 'Aneurysm,' is incorrect as it is a bulge in a blood vessel that can rupture and cause bleeding, not a temporary blockage of blood flow. Option D, 'Myocardial infarction,' is also incorrect as it refers to a heart attack, not a condition involving the brain's blood flow.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer a beta blocker to a client with hypertension. What is the priority assessment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's blood pressure. Before administering a beta blocker to a client with hypertension, assessing the blood pressure is crucial because beta blockers can cause hypotension, potentially leading to adverse effects. Checking the heart rate may also be important but is secondary to monitoring the blood pressure in this scenario. Respiratory rate and temperature assessments are not directly related to assessing the client's response to a beta blocker in hypertension management, making choices C and D less relevant.

3. The nurse is teaching a client about side effects of ACE inhibitors. What is the most important side effect to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough in patients. This side effect is important to monitor because it can indicate the development of angioedema, a serious adverse reaction that requires immediate medical attention. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not typically the most important one to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also possible side effects of ACE inhibitors, but they are not as critical to monitor as the development of a persistent cough.

4. Which condition involves the tearing of the aorta, leading to severe pain and internal bleeding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition where the inner layer of the aorta tears, causing severe chest or back pain and internal bleeding, requiring immediate medical attention. Choice B, aneurysm, involves a bulging or weakening of a blood vessel wall, which is different from a tear in the aorta. Choices C and D, stroke and myocardial infarction, do not directly involve the tearing of the aorta and are distinct conditions.

5. The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is significantly elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. The priority nursing action in this situation is to administer vitamin K as an antidote to reverse the effects of warfarin and lower the INR. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is important but not as immediate as administering vitamin K. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the bleeding risk. Administering fresh frozen plasma (choice D) is not the first-line treatment for high INR due to warfarin.

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