ATI RN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
- B. Difficulty swallowing
- C. Heart rate of 122/min
- D. Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client has burns involving the face, ears, and eyelids, the priority finding to report to the provider is difficulty swallowing. This symptom could indicate potential airway compromise or swelling in the throat, which can lead to serious complications. Monitoring and addressing this issue promptly is crucial to ensure the client's airway remains patent and secure.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Stridor
- B. Copious oral secretions
- C. Hoarseness
- D. Sore throat
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that can indicate airway obstruction. It is a serious finding that requires immediate attention as it may lead to respiratory compromise. Copious oral secretions, hoarseness, and sore throat are common but expected findings after endotracheal tube removal and do not typically require urgent intervention.
3. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The client's assessment findings include anxiousness, dyspnea at rest, crackles, blood pressure 110/79 mm Hg, and apical heart rate 112/min. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Provide the client with supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask.
- B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position with their legs in a dependent position
- C. Give the client sublingual nitroglycerin
- D. Administer morphine sulfate IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation and reduce the workload on the heart. Providing supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask helps increase oxygen levels and alleviate respiratory distress. This intervention can help improve oxygen saturation, alleviate dyspnea, and support the client's respiratory function. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position with legs dependent can also help with respiratory effort, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence. Sublingual nitroglycerin and IV morphine sulfate are commonly used interventions for cardiac-related conditions, but in this case, addressing oxygenation is the priority to prevent further deterioration.
4. A college health nurse interprets the peak expiratory flow rate for a student who has asthma and finds that the student is in the yellow zone of his asthma action plan. The nurse should not base her actions on which of the following information?
- A. The student should use his quick-relief inhaler.
- B. The student's asthma is not well controlled.
- C. The student's peak flow is 50% to 80% of his best peak flow.
- D. The student needs to go to the hospital
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In an asthma action plan, the yellow zone indicates caution and signals a need to monitor symptoms closely. When a student is in the yellow zone, the appropriate action is to follow the prescribed steps, which typically include using a quick-relief inhaler and closely monitoring peak flow. Going to the hospital is usually reserved for severe asthma exacerbations in the red zone. Therefore, the information that the student needs to go to the hospital is not typically appropriate when the student is in the yellow zone.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has COPD. The nurse should expect the client's chest to be which of the following shapes?
- A. Pigeon
- B. Funnel
- C. Kyphotic
- D. Barrel
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
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