ATI RN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client in the intensive care unit is receiving teaching before removal of an endotracheal tube. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Rest in a side-lying position after the tube is removed.
- B. Use the incentive spirometer every 4 hours after the tube is removed.
- C. Avoid speaking for extended periods.
- D. Vital signs will be monitored by a nurse every 15 minutes in the first hour after the tube is removed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: It is essential to advise the client to avoid speaking for extended periods after the removal of the endotracheal tube to prevent strain on the vocal cords and allow the airway to recover. Speaking for prolonged periods can lead to irritation and potentially affect the healing process. The other options are also important post-extubation instructions, such as using the incentive spirometer to maintain lung function, positioning in a side-lying position for comfort, and frequent monitoring of vital signs to ensure the client's stability.
2. A client with COPD is developing a plan of care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Restrict the client's fluid intake to less than 2 L/day
- B. Provide the client with a low-protein diet
- C. Have the client use the early-morning hours for exercise and activity
- D. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In COPD, pursed-lip breathing helps improve breathing efficiency by maintaining positive pressure in the airways, preventing airway collapse, and promoting oxygenation. This technique assists in controlling respiratory rate, reducing dyspnea, and enhancing oxygen saturation levels. Restricting fluid intake is not typically a part of COPD management. Providing a low-protein diet is not a standard intervention for COPD. Early-morning hours are generally not recommended for exercise due to cooler temperatures and higher pollution levels, which can exacerbate COPD symptoms.
3. A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?
- A. Rifampin
- B. Isoniazid
- C. Acyclovir
- D. Pyrazinamide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.
4. During an assessment in the emergency department, an older adult client with community-acquired pneumonia is found to be confused. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Unequal pupils
- B. Hypertension
- C. Tympany upon chest percussion
- D. Confusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Confusion is a common finding in older adult clients with pneumonia, often indicating hypoxia. Hypertension, unequal pupils, and tympany upon chest percussion are not typically associated with community-acquired pneumonia in older adults.
5. When preparing a client for transfer to the ICU for placement of a pulmonary artery catheter, the nurse should explain that this catheter is used to monitor which of the following conditions?
- A. Intracranial pressure
- B. Spinal cord perfusion
- C. Renal function
- D. Hemodynamic status
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulmonary artery catheter is primarily used to monitor hemodynamic status. It provides essential information on cardiac output, preload, afterload, and overall cardiovascular function. This data helps healthcare providers manage the client's fluid status, cardiac function, and guide treatment interventions in critically ill patients. Monitoring intracranial pressure, spinal cord perfusion, or renal function would require different monitoring devices and techniques, not a pulmonary artery catheter.
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