Free ATI RN Custom Exams practice for ATI RN Custom Exams Set 3 (ATI RN). Answer 100 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress track
The nurse is caring for a client whose religious background is Seventh Day Adventist (Church of GOD). Which nursing action(s) are most appropriate in terms of providing for the dietary needs of this client? Select all that apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Seventh Day Adventists typically avoid caffeine and pork due to religious dietary restrictions. Providing snacks between meals (choice A) is not specifically related to the dietary needs of this client. While removing coffee from the breakfast tray (choice C) aligns with the client's dietary restrictions, ensuring no pork on the dinner tray (choice D) is redundant as it is already covered in the correct answer. Therefore, choices C and D are not necessary to include as separate options.
The nurse understands that which are characteristics of anthrax? Select all that apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct characteristics of anthrax are that cutaneous lesions become a black eschar, and flu-like symptoms are typical of pulmonary anthrax. Choice B is incorrect as it only covers the cutaneous anthrax characteristic and does not include the flu-like symptoms of pulmonary anthrax. Choice C is incorrect as gastrointestinal anthrax does not cause 'blood anthrax,' and Choice D is incorrect as flu-like symptoms are not associated with gastrointestinal anthrax.
A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A patient with a history of gout should avoid foods high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Red meat is particularly high in purines, so it is the type of food that should be avoided. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally not associated with triggering gout attacks, so they can be consumed in moderation by patients with gout.
Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. A practical nurse's major duties include performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (Choice A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (Choice B), and managing ward or unit operations (Choice C). These duties are more aligned with the responsibilities of a practical nurse, emphasizing patient care and coordination within a healthcare setting.
A client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider ordering?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Chest tube insertion. A chest tube may be needed if a pancreatic pseudocyst ruptures into the pleural space, causing a pleural effusion. Paracentesis (choice A) involves the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not typically indicated for a pancreatic pseudocyst. Lumbar puncture (choice C) is a procedure to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal, not relevant to a pancreatic pseudocyst. Biopsy of the pancreas (choice D) is a diagnostic procedure to obtain tissue samples for examination and is not typically done in the context of a ruptured pseudocyst.
The nurse is caring for the client one day postoperative sigmoid colostomy operation. Which independent nursing intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assisting the client to sit in a chair is an essential nursing intervention postoperatively as it helps promote circulation, prevent complications like blood clots, and aids in the recovery process. Changing the infusion rate of intravenous fluid (Choice A) requires a physician's order and is not an independent nursing intervention. Encouraging the client to discuss feelings (Choice B) is important for emotional support but not as crucial as physical care immediately postoperatively. Administering opioid narcotic medications (Choice C) for pain management should be based on a prescribed schedule and assessment rather than being an independent nursing action.
In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.
The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct interventions for a client with fluid volume deficit include monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. Monitoring vital signs helps in early detection of changes, daily weighing can indicate fluid retention or loss, and skin turgor assessment is a reliable indicator of hydration status. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and should not be included in the plan of care for this specific condition.
Which of the following statements about medications is true?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. This statement is true because both prescription medications and over-the-counter medications, along with herbal remedies, can interact with food. Choice A is incorrect because over-the-counter medications can also interact with food or nutrients. Choice B is incorrect as not all prescription medications have significant interactions with food. Choice D is misleading because herbal products are not always safe, as they can have side effects and interact with other medications.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic areas of concern into which practical nurse management responsibilities can be categorized?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Managing patients' legal affairs is not a basic area of concern in practical nurse management responsibilities. The primary areas typically include managing work center operations, managing personnel, and overseeing patient care. Choice B, managing the hypothalamus, is irrelevant to nurse management responsibilities and is not a standard area of concern in this context. Choice C, managing work center operations, and Choice D, managing personnel, align more closely with the core responsibilities and concerns of practical nurse management roles.
Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.
Which dietary change is most beneficial for a patient with hypertension?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Increased fiber intake. A diet high in fiber is beneficial for patients with hypertension as it helps lower blood pressure. Increased sodium intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can raise blood pressure. Decreasing potassium intake (choice B) is not advisable as potassium helps regulate blood pressure. Increased cholesterol intake (choice D) is also not recommended as high cholesterol levels can contribute to cardiovascular issues, including hypertension.
Which of the following is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives additional training in providing care beyond basic first aid procedures?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, 'Combat lifesaver.' A Combat Lifesaver is a nonmedical member of a unit who is trained in advanced first aid procedures, providing care beyond basic first aid. Choice A, 'Area support squad leader,' does not specifically refer to someone trained in providing advanced care. Choice B, 'ATLS specialist,' refers to someone trained in Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS), which is beyond the scope of the question. Choice C, 'Tactical lifesaver,' is not a recognized term for the role described in the question.
What are three major causes of atherosclerosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: High blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking are three major causes of atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis is mainly attributed to the buildup of cholesterol-rich plaques in the arteries, high blood pressure causing damage to the arterial walls, and the harmful effects of cigarette smoking on blood vessels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the primary causes of atherosclerosis.
The nurse is caring for clients on a cardiac floor. Which client should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is less urgent as occasional unifocal PVCs are common. Choice B is important but can be addressed after the client with an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable compared to a client with potential heart failure symptoms.
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of training soldiers for survival on the battlefield?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Individual training. This category involves the specific task of preparing soldiers for battlefield survival, making it the most appropriate choice for the given scenario. Choice A, Accountability, focuses on being answerable for one's actions and decisions, which is not directly related to training soldiers. Choice B, Personal/professional development, pertains to personal growth and career advancement, not specific training for battlefield survival. Choice D, Military appearance/physical condition, deals with the physical aspects and presentation of soldiers, not the training required for battlefield survival.
Determining whether the care provided is appropriate and effective in relation to the patient's current physiological and psychological status is a part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Evaluation. Evaluation involves assessing the appropriateness and effectiveness of care provided to the patient. It helps determine if the care aligns with the patient's current physiological and psychological status. Choice B, Planning, refers to developing a plan of care based on assessment data. Choice C, Implementation, involves carrying out the planned interventions. Choice D, Assessment, is the initial step that involves collecting data about the patient's condition.
Interacting with the patient and their family to obtain subjective information is part of which of the following steps in determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Assessment. In the nursing process, assessment is the first step where nurses gather subjective and objective data to understand the patient's needs. Interacting with the patient and their family to obtain subjective information is crucial in this phase. Choice A, Evaluation, comes later in the process and involves judging the effectiveness of the care provided. Choice B, Planning, is where the nurse develops a plan of care based on the assessment findings. Choice C, Implementation, is the phase where the nursing care plan is put into action.
Students in the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course are expected to achieve entry-level competencies for which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Medical-surgical nursing. In the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course, students are expected to achieve entry-level competencies in medical-surgical nursing. This area of nursing focuses on caring for adult patients with a variety of medical conditions. Obstetric and newborn nursing (choice B), pediatric nursing (choice C), and trauma nursing (choice D) are specialized areas within nursing that are not typically covered in entry-level practical nurse courses, making them incorrect choices.
During a respiratory assessment, the nurse is determining respirations per minute. Which factor(s) generally affect the character of respirations? Select all that apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Anxiety and exercise can significantly alter the character of respirations, increasing the rate and depth. Smoking primarily affects the health of the respiratory system in the long term but may not immediately impact the character of respirations. Therefore, choice C is incorrect. Choices A and B are correct as anxiety and exercise can lead to changes in the rate and depth of respirations.
The nurse instructs a client 5 days after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion about how to move from a supine position to standing at the left side of the bed with a walker. Which of the following directions by the nurse is BEST?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice C is the best direction provided by the nurse. This method involves reaching over to the left side rail with the right hand, pulling the body onto its side, bending the upper leg so the foot is on the bed, and pushing down to elevate the trunk. This approach helps maintain spinal alignment while moving from a lying to a standing position, reducing strain on the back. Choices A, B, and D involve movements that are not suitable for a client recovering from a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion and could potentially cause harm or discomfort.
The client with peripheral vascular disease is being taught by the nurse. Which interventions should the nurse discuss with the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct interventions for a client with peripheral vascular disease include keeping the area between the toes dry and wearing comfortable, well-fitting shoes. Choice A is correct as moisture between the toes can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice B is also correct as proper footwear helps prevent injury and promotes circulation. Choice C, cutting toenails straight across, is incorrect for peripheral vascular disease clients as cutting them in an arch can reduce the risk of ingrown toenails, which is important for clients with diabetes to prevent complications. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate interventions for the client with peripheral vascular disease.
The unlicensed nursing assistant is applying elastic compression stockings to the client. Which action by the assistant warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because compression stockings should be applied while the client is lying down to prevent pooling of blood in the legs, which can occur when the client is sitting or standing. Choice B is not a cause for immediate intervention as inserting two fingers under the proximal end of the stocking helps ensure proper fit. Choice C demonstrates the correct technique of elevating the feet while lying down to put on the stockings. Choice D also shows good care by making sure the toes were warm after putting the stockings on.
Which situation(s) are classified as natural disasters?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Blizzards and volcanic eruptions are classified as natural disasters because they are caused by natural forces beyond human control. In contrast, structural collapses are typically a result of man-made factors, making them not classified as natural disasters. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patients with gallbladder disease are advised to reduce their fat intake because fats can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and bloating. While protein, sodium, and cholesterol may also impact overall health, reducing fat intake specifically helps manage gallbladder-related symptoms effectively. Protein is important for tissue repair, sodium can affect blood pressure, and cholesterol levels impact heart health, but in the context of gallbladder disease, fat reduction is the most beneficial.
Which nutrient deficiency is most likely to be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In patients with chronic alcoholism, the most likely nutrient deficiency is Vitamin B1 (thiamine), not Vitamin B12. Chronic alcoholism often leads to Vitamin B1 deficiency, causing conditions like Wernicke's encephalopathy. While other vitamin deficiencies can also occur in chronic alcoholism, such as Vitamin C and Vitamin D, Vitamin B1 deficiency is more commonly associated with alcoholism.
What causes hepatic encephalopathy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body, not urea. Ammonia accumulates due to liver dysfunction, leading to neurological symptoms. Fatty infiltration of the liver may lead to conditions like non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, but it is not the direct cause of hepatic encephalopathy. Jaundice is a symptom of liver dysfunction but is not the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.
The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assess the client for a pulse. In ventricular tachycardia, the priority is to determine if the client has a pulse. If there is no pulse, immediate initiation of CPR with chest compressions is required. Calling a code or continuing to monitor the client can delay life-saving interventions. Therefore, assessing for a pulse is the most crucial step in managing ventricular tachycardia.
Under the health services support area concept, how is the medical care under the MEDCOM divided?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Under the health services support area concept, the medical care under the MEDCOM is divided into eight geographical areas of responsibility designated as health services support regions, each of which is further subdivided into two or more health service areas. This structure allows for a more organized and efficient delivery of medical care across different regions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe how medical care under the MEDCOM is divided according to the concept of health services support areas.
During a physical assessment of a newborn, which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize reporting?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. A head circumference of 40 cm is abnormally large for a newborn and could indicate conditions like hydrocephalus or other abnormalities, making it a crucial finding to report. Choices B, C, and D are within normal parameters for a newborn and do not pose immediate concerns. Chest circumference of 32 cm is a normal finding. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp are common in newborns due to physiological adaptations. A heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min may be within the normal range for a newborn.
The medical C4I headquarters has automated data processing systems that aid in which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because the automated data processing systems in the medical C4I headquarters play a role in patient accountability, tracking the movement of patients, and managing health service logistics systems. These systems help in efficiently managing patient information, monitoring and coordinating patient movements, and optimizing the logistics involved in health services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they represent individual aspects that are all encompassed by the functions of the automated data processing systems in the C4I headquarters.
The healthcare provider is conducting a respiratory assessment and is determining respirations per minute. Which factor(s) generally affect the character of respirations? Select all that apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct! Anxiety and exercise can significantly alter the character of respirations, increasing the rate and depth. Smoking, while harmful to the respiratory system in the long term, does not directly affect the character of respirations like anxiety and exercise do. Therefore, choices C (Smoking) is incorrect. The correct answer is D (A, B).
The nurse is preparing a teaching care plan for the client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Reporting a decrease in daily weight is crucial when managing nephritic syndrome as it can indicate worsening of the condition or dehydration. It is essential to monitor weight changes closely to assess the effectiveness of treatment and the client's fluid status. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing steroid therapy abruptly can lead to complications; gradual tapering is usually recommended. Choice B is incorrect as diuretics should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider to manage fluid retention. Choice C is also incorrect because increasing dietary sodium can exacerbate fluid retention, which is counterproductive in nephritic syndrome.
A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. This occurs due to the medication's stimulatory effect on beta-2 adrenergic receptors. Flushing (Choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (Choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom albuterol aims to alleviate. Hypotension (Choice D) is not typically associated with albuterol use; instead, albuterol can lead to an increase in blood pressure.
The nurse teaches the mother of an infant how to care for her infant following repair of a cleft lip. It is MOST important for the nurse to include which of the following instructions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because feeding the infant with a rubber-tipped syringe reduces the risk of injury to the surgical site and prevents aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because feeding in the recumbent position can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as Betadine is not recommended for wound care near the mouth due to its potential toxicity if ingested. Choice C is incorrect because placing the infant in the prone position after feeding can increase the risk of regurgitation and aspiration.
AND Answers
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When collecting a stool specimen, the nurse should usually take about 1 inch of the specimen or a teaspoonful for testing purposes. This amount is sufficient for laboratory analysis and helps ensure accurate results. It is important for the nurse to follow the proper procedure for specimen collection to maintain accuracy in diagnostic testing.
Under what circumstances can personal health information be disclosed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Personal health information can be disclosed under specific circumstances such as compliance with legal proceedings, for research purposes in limited situations, and to a family member or significant other in emergencies. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because it encompasses all the situations where disclosure of personal health information is permissible. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they represent individual scenarios where disclosure can occur, but the comprehensive answer is that personal health information can be disclosed in all these situations, not just one or two.
Which lipoprotein carries cholesterol from tissues to the liver for excretion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, High-density lipoprotein (HDL). HDL is known as 'good' cholesterol because it helps transport excess cholesterol from tissues back to the liver for removal from the body. Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) (choice A) and intermediate-density lipoprotein (choice B) are involved in transporting triglycerides. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) (choice C) is known as 'bad' cholesterol as it can deposit cholesterol in the walls of arteries.
People who use monoamine oxidase inhibitors for the treatment of depression need to avoid foods high in:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Tyramine. Tyramine can interact with monoamine oxidase inhibitors, leading to hypertensive crises. Folate (choice A) is not contraindicated with monoamine oxidase inhibitors. Potassium (choice C) is an essential mineral and not specifically contraindicated with these medications. Vitamin K (choice D) is not a concern for interactions with monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
Which of the following drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs are known to contribute to peptic ulcers by affecting the gastric mucosa. Choice A, Antacids, actually help to alleviate symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Choice B, Certain antibiotics, are used to treat H. pylori infections, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Choice C, Cholesterol-lowering medications, do not contribute to peptic ulcers.
Which discharge instruction should the nurse teach the client diagnosed with varicose veins who has received sclerotherapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to walk 15 to 20 minutes three times a day. Walking is beneficial as it helps improve circulation and reduces the risk of complications following sclerotherapy. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the legs in the dependent position when sitting can lead to increased venous pressure, worsening varicose veins. Choice C is incorrect as compression bandages should typically be worn continuously, especially during the initial healing phase. Choice D is incorrect as Berger-Allen exercises are not commonly associated with post-sclerotherapy care.
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'listening and responding to soldiers' suggestions and complaints'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Accountability in personnel management involves being answerable for one's actions and decisions, which includes listening to and addressing the suggestions and complaints of soldiers. This category focuses on the responsibility and answerability aspect of the nurse manager's role. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because personal/professional development is about growth and improvement, individual training pertains to specific skill development, and military appearance/physical condition relates to the physical presentation and fitness levels, none of which directly address the task of listening and responding to soldiers' suggestions and complaints.
What is the mission of the Army Medical Department?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Maintain the health of the Army and conserve its fighting strength.' This mission statement reflects the primary goal of the Army Medical Department, which is to ensure the overall health and readiness of military personnel. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not fully capture the core purpose of the Army Medical Department. While providing physical examinations, healthcare in disaster areas, and education/training are important aspects, the central mission is to uphold the health and combat readiness of the Army.
Protecting the rights and privacy of the patient and their family is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Implementation. Implementation is the phase where the nursing care plan is put into action, which includes safeguarding the patient's and their family's rights and privacy. Evaluation (choice A) involves reviewing the effectiveness of the care plan, Planning (choice B) is the phase where the care plan is developed, and Assessment (choice D) is the initial step where data about the patient is collected.
Who is at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Older men and women are at higher risk for drug-nutrient interactions due to factors such as polypharmacy and physiological changes. Polypharmacy, common in older adults, increases the likelihood of interactions between drugs and nutrients. Physiological changes that occur with aging can affect how drugs and nutrients are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the body. Infants, people with diabetes, and women of childbearing age are not typically considered high-risk groups for drug-nutrient interactions compared to older adults.
The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Patient Holding Squad is the module composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients. The other choices are incorrect because a 'Treatment squad' would typically involve a broader range of medical care, an 'Area support squad' is more general and focuses on providing overall support in a specific area, and a 'Surgical squad' would be specifically focused on surgical procedures rather than general medical care for minimal care patients.
Students in the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course are expected to achieve entry-level competencies for which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Medical-surgical nursing. In the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course, students are expected to achieve entry-level competencies in medical-surgical nursing, which includes caring for adult patients who are acutely ill or recovering from surgery. Obstetrics and newborn nursing (choice B), pediatric nursing (choice C), and trauma nursing (choice D) are specialized areas that may not be covered in the entry-level competencies of the practical nurse course.
A client has been given instructions about ferrous sulfate. Which statement made by the client would indicate the client needs further education?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Ferrous sulfate should not be taken with milk as it can impair iron absorption. Choice B is correct as taking the morning dose 1 hour before breakfast is appropriate. Choice C is correct as coffee can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D is correct as antacids should be taken 2 hours after ferrous sulfate to avoid interference with its absorption.
The Army Medical Department has four major functions. Three are prevention, treatment, and evacuation. What is the fourth?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Mobilization.' In the context of the Army Medical Department, mobilization refers to the process of preparing and organizing medical personnel and resources for deployment during military operations. While preparation, training, and selection are important functions within the military medical field, mobilization specifically relates to the readiness and deployment of medical assets in response to operational requirements, making it the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department.
The nurse teaches the mother of an infant how to care for her infant following repair of a cleft lip. It is MOST important for the nurse to include which of the following instructions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because feeding the infant with a rubber-tipped syringe reduces the risk of injury to the surgical site and prevents aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because feeding an infant with a cleft lip using a newborn nipple while in the recumbent position can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as Betadine is not typically used on suture sites due to its cytotoxic effects. Choice C is incorrect because placing the infant in the prone position after feeding can also increase the risk of aspiration.
For a patient on lithium therapy, which dietary recommendation is essential?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to increase sodium intake. For patients on lithium therapy, maintaining consistent sodium intake is crucial to avoid fluctuations in drug levels. Increasing caffeine intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can interfere with lithium levels. While protein intake (choice C) is important for overall health, it is not specifically essential for patients on lithium therapy. Similarly, increasing fiber intake (choice D) is beneficial but not a primary concern for patients on lithium therapy.
During a physical assessment of a newborn, what finding should the nurse prioritize reporting?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because a head circumference of 40 cm is unusually large for a newborn, which may indicate hydrocephalus or other abnormalities. Reporting this finding is crucial for further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not as concerning during a newborn physical assessment. A chest circumference of 32 cm is within the normal range for a newborn. Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp are common findings in newborns and usually resolve without intervention. While a heart rate of 160 bpm and respirations of 40/min should be monitored, they are not as critical as an unusually large head circumference.
The client is four hours post-operative abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Which nursing intervention should be implemented for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the client's bilateral pedal pulses is essential in this situation as it helps in evaluating the peripheral perfusion and circulation in the lower extremities. This assessment is crucial to detect any signs of decreased blood flow or complications, such as arterial occlusion or thrombosis. Ambulating the client may be important in the postoperative period, but assessing pedal pulses takes priority to ensure adequate perfusion. Maintaining continuous IV heparin drip is not typically indicated immediately post-operatively for an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, as the risk of bleeding complications may outweigh the benefits. Providing a clear liquid diet is not a priority nursing intervention at this stage, as the focus should be on vascular assessment and postoperative monitoring.
When is aspirin most effective when taken?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Aspirin is best absorbed on an empty stomach to maximize its effectiveness. Taking it with cold water helps in its quick absorption. Option B is incorrect because taking aspirin on a full stomach can delay its absorption. Option C is incorrect as fruit juice may not provide the ideal conditions for absorption. Option D is incorrect as taking aspirin first thing in the morning may not ensure an empty stomach.
Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: '68WM6'. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel responsible for performing nursing care duties at various levels of health care. This choice is correct as it specifically identifies the enlisted personnel role related to nursing care. Choice A (68A30) is incorrect as it does not pertain to nursing care duties. Choice C (Physician assistant) is incorrect as physician assistants are not typically enlisted personnel. Choice D (6.80E+21) is incorrect as it is a numerical value and not a designation for enlisted personnel.
A client is admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of a right-sided brain attack (CVA). The client is right-handed. Which task will be most difficult for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Writing letters. Writing requires fine motor skills, which are often impaired in a right-handed person with a right-sided CVA. Eating meals (choice A) involves gross motor skills and can be adapted for easier handling. Combing the hair (choice C) and dressing every morning (choice D) also require fine motor skills, but they are generally less complex and demanding than writing letters.
The nurse prepares to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a newborn with a diagnosis of heart failure and notes that the apical rate is 140 beats per minute. Which nursing action is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer the digoxin. An apical rate of 140 bpm is within the normal range for a newborn. Digoxin is commonly prescribed for heart failure in newborns to help improve cardiac function. Holding the medication or notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary as the heart rate is normal for a newborn. Rechecking the apical rate in 1 hour is not needed since the heart rate is within the expected range.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client with a history of atherosclerosis and notes elevated cholesterol levels. Which statement by the client indicates the nurse should plan follow-up instruction on a low-cholesterol diet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Eating three eggs daily increases cholesterol intake, which could exacerbate atherosclerosis. Omega-3 supplements, cooking with canola oil, and flavoring meat with lemon juice do not significantly impact cholesterol levels compared to consuming three eggs daily. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client to reduce egg consumption to improve cholesterol levels.
The client diagnosed with thalassemia, a hereditary anemia, is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. The cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. Which precaution should the nurse implement when initiating the transfusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Starting the transfusion slowly at 10-15 mL per hour for 15-30 minutes is essential when the cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. This precaution allows the nurse to monitor for any adverse reactions due to the antibodies. Re-crossmatching the blood until the antibodies are identified (choice B) may delay the transfusion process and put the client at risk. Having the client sign a permit to receive uncrossmatched blood (choice C) is not a standard practice and does not address the immediate need for precautions during transfusion. Having the unlicensed nursing assistant stay with the client (choice D) is unrelated to the safe initiation of the transfusion and is not a precaution specific to managing antibodies in blood products.
In a routine sputum analysis, which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to secure a clean container before sputum collection. This is essential to prevent contamination of the specimen, ensuring accurate test results and avoiding the introduction of external particles or bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because discarding the container if the outside becomes dirty is not necessary; the cleanliness of the inside is crucial. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with Listerine before collection may introduce unwanted substances that can affect the test results. Choice D is incorrect as the amount of sputum required can vary depending on the test, and specifying a specific amount without medical guidance is not appropriate.
When does the nurse act as a client advocate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, 'All of the above.' Acting as a client advocate involves various actions to protect the client's rights and well-being. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing ensures privacy and dignity. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client facilitates communication and addresses the client's needs. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only safeguards the client's confidentiality and privacy. Therefore, all the actions mentioned in choices A, B, and C are examples of a nurse acting as a client advocate, making D the correct answer.
People who use monoamine oxidase inhibitors for the treatment of depression need to avoid foods high in:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Tyramine. When individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) consume foods high in tyramine, it can lead to a potentially dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis. Foods high in tyramine include aged cheeses, cured meats, and certain fermented foods. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Folate, potassium, and vitamin K are not typically contraindicated with the use of MAOIs.
The nurse is teaching the client with peripheral vascular disease. Which intervention should the nurse discuss with the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct interventions for a client with peripheral vascular disease include keeping the area between the toes dry to prevent moisture-related skin issues and wearing comfortable, well-fitting shoes to prevent injury and promote circulation. Cutting toenails straight across is important to prevent ingrown toenails, but in this case, an arch cut can lead to injury. Therefore, choices A and B are correct, making option D the most appropriate answer. Choice C is incorrect in this context.
The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client will the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because epistaxis and headache in a client with hypertension are signs of a hypertensive crisis that necessitate immediate intervention. Choice A is incorrect as constipation in a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, while important, does not indicate an immediate crisis. Choice B is incorrect as a client on bed rest ambulating to the bathroom is a positive sign. Choice D is incorrect because a decreased pedal pulse in arterial occlusive disease should be addressed promptly, but it does not indicate an acute emergency like a hypertensive crisis.
Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client's medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to call the practitioner, report the client's symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client's symptoms, including severe abdominal pain, pallor, perspiration, thready rapid pulse, and feeling faint, are indicative of potential complications like internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Explaining to the client that it is too early for pain medication or repositioning the client for comfort are not appropriate actions given the severity of the symptoms. Administering the injection early without consulting the practitioner can be dangerous and may worsen the client's condition.
The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck's traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Turning the client to the unaffected side helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Dorsiflexion of the foot on the affected leg helps maintain proper alignment and prevent foot drop. The incorrect choices are A and D. Removing the foam boot multiple times per day can disrupt traction, and asking the client to dorsiflex the foot may not be appropriate without ensuring proper alignment and direction from the healthcare provider.
The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client who was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client's discharge at which point during the hospitalization?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. It is important to start early to address any potential barriers to discharge, coordinate resources, and provide adequate education and support. Choices B, C, and D are not the appropriate points to start discharge planning as they do not mark the beginning of the hospitalization phase related to the surgical unit.
The nurse on the medical/surgical unit cares for a client with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The nursing assessment of the client's neurological status should include which of the following? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct choices are B and C. Assessing grasp strength and orientation to person, place, and time are essential components of a neurological assessment after a CVA. Pulse assessment in all four extremities is more relevant to circulatory assessment rather than neurological status. Therefore, option A is incorrect.
The client is four hours post-operative abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Which nursing intervention should be implemented for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the client's bilateral pedal pulses is crucial at this point to monitor the perfusion to the lower extremities after abdominal aortic aneurysm repair surgery. Ambulation (Choice A) may be appropriate but should be guided by the assessment findings. Maintaining a continuous IV heparin drip (Choice C) is not typically indicated post-operatively for this type of surgery. Providing clear liquids (Choice D) may not be suitable immediately after the surgery, as the client needs time to recover before resuming oral intake.
The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck's traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct care for a client in Buck's traction includes turning the client to the unaffected side to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Additionally, asking the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg helps prevent foot drop. Removing the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin is unnecessary and could disrupt the traction, so it is not appropriate. Therefore, choices A and D are incorrect.
The nurse in the pediatric clinic performs a physical assessment of a 13-year-old boy. Which of the following findings by the nurse requires an immediate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A swollen and thickened spermatic cord could indicate testicular torsion, which is a surgical emergency.
What intervention would be most important for the nurse to implement for the client with a left nephrectomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume. After a nephrectomy, monitoring intravenous fluids is crucial to ensure proper hydration and kidney function. Choice B is incorrect because changing the surgical dressing daily is important but not the most critical intervention. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring medication levels daily may be necessary but is not the priority after a nephrectomy. Choice D is irrelevant to the immediate postoperative care needed after a nephrectomy.
The client has been diagnosed with hemorrhoids. Which statement from the client indicates that further teaching is needed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice C indicates that further teaching is needed because taking a laxative every night and aiming to have a stool daily can lead to dependence and is not recommended for managing hemorrhoids. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate self-care measures for hemorrhoids, such as increasing fiber intake, using warm compresses/sitz baths, and using analgesic ointments or suppositories for pain relief.
The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct interventions for a client presenting with acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood are to assess the client's vital signs and start an IV with an 18-gauge needle. Assessing vital signs helps in determining the client's current condition and response to treatment, while starting an IV is crucial for administering medications and fluids. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to stabilize the client and address potential bleeding. Therefore, options A and B are correct choices, making option D the most appropriate answer.
Which nursing instruction should the nurse discuss with the client who is receiving glucocorticoids for Addison's disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because tapering glucocorticoids is crucial to prevent adrenal insufficiency, which can occur if the medication is stopped abruptly. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to dose adjustments during stress or infection, not discontinuation. Choice C is incorrect because it does not specifically address the issue of stopping the medication. Choice D is not directly related to the management of glucocorticoid therapy for Addison's disease.
Which laboratory data indicate the client's pancreatitis is improving?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Amylase and lipase are enzymes specifically related to pancreatitis. A decrease in their serum levels indicates improvement in pancreatitis. White blood cell count (WBC), choices C and D, are not direct markers for pancreatitis improvement. Bilirubin levels, choice C, are more related to liver function rather than pancreatitis. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level, choice D, is a marker for kidney function, not pancreatitis.
What intervention would be the most important for the nurse to implement for the client with a left nephrectomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important intervention for a client with a left nephrectomy is to assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume. After nephrectomy, monitoring intravenous fluids is crucial to ensure proper hydration and kidney function. Changing the surgical dressing daily, monitoring medication levels, and tracking meal intake are also important aspects of care but not as critical as ensuring adequate intravenous fluid management post-surgery.
The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Second intercostal space, right sternal border. The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border, where the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not the recommended anatomical positions for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis.
Which nursing instruction should the nurse discuss with the client who is receiving glucocorticoids for Addison's disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to discuss the importance of tapering medications when discontinuing medication. Tapering glucocorticoids is crucial to prevent adrenal insufficiency, which can occur if the medication is stopped abruptly. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on adjustments during stress or infection, not discontinuation. Choice C is unrelated to the management of glucocorticoids. Choice D is important for emergency identification but is not directly related to medication management.
The nurse enters a client's room and the client is demanding release from the hospital. The nurse reviews the client's record and notes that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder, and the admission was voluntary. Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for the nurse to initiate first is to notify the client's healthcare provider of the client's intention to leave the hospital. This is important to ensure that the client's care and safety are appropriately managed. Option A is incorrect as involving the family without proper assessment or intervention could violate the client's autonomy. Option B is incorrect because it does not involve the healthcare provider in the decision-making process. Option C is incorrect as it does not address the client's rights to make decisions about their own care.
The nurse writes a problem of "potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation" for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (choice A) is not directly related to monitoring or managing ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (choice C) is not relevant to the potential complication of ovarian hyperstimulation. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (choice D) is important but not the most appropriate intervention for managing ovarian hyperstimulation.
The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering a beta blocker as the blood pressure is within normal range. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C may indicate a potential adverse effect of another medication, but it does not specifically warrant questioning the administration of the beta blocker.
Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client's medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to call the practitioner, report the client's symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client's symptoms, including severe abdominal pain, pallor, perspiration, thready rapid pulse, and feeling faint, are indicative of potential complications like internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Explaining to the client that it is too early for pain medication or repositioning the client for comfort are not appropriate actions given the severity of the symptoms. Administering the injection early without consulting the practitioner can be dangerous and may worsen the client's condition.
The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck's traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Turning the client to the unaffected side helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Dorsiflexion of the foot on the affected leg helps maintain proper alignment and prevent foot drop. The incorrect choices are A and D. Removing the foam boot multiple times per day can disrupt traction, and asking the client to dorsiflex the foot may not be appropriate without ensuring proper alignment and direction from the healthcare provider.
The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client who was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client's discharge at which point during the hospitalization?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. It is important to start early to address any potential barriers to discharge, coordinate resources, and provide adequate education and support. Choices B, C, and D are not the appropriate points to start discharge planning as they do not mark the beginning of the hospitalization phase related to the surgical unit.
The nurse on the medical/surgical unit cares for a client with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The nursing assessment of the client's neurological status should include which of the following? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct choices are B and C. Assessing grasp strength and orientation to person, place, and time are essential components of a neurological assessment after a CVA. Pulse assessment in all four extremities is more relevant to circulatory assessment rather than neurological status. Therefore, option A is incorrect.
The client is four hours post-operative abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Which nursing intervention should be implemented for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the client's bilateral pedal pulses is crucial at this point to monitor the perfusion to the lower extremities after abdominal aortic aneurysm repair surgery. Ambulation (Choice A) may be appropriate but should be guided by the assessment findings. Maintaining a continuous IV heparin drip (Choice C) is not typically indicated post-operatively for this type of surgery. Providing clear liquids (Choice D) may not be suitable immediately after the surgery, as the client needs time to recover before resuming oral intake.
The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck's traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct care for a client in Buck's traction includes turning the client to the unaffected side to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Additionally, asking the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg helps prevent foot drop. Removing the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin is unnecessary and could disrupt the traction, so it is not appropriate. Therefore, choices A and D are incorrect.
The nurse in the pediatric clinic performs a physical assessment of a 13-year-old boy. Which of the following findings by the nurse requires an immediate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A swollen and thickened spermatic cord could indicate testicular torsion, which is a surgical emergency.
What intervention would be most important for the nurse to implement for the client with a left nephrectomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume. After a nephrectomy, monitoring intravenous fluids is crucial to ensure proper hydration and kidney function. Choice B is incorrect because changing the surgical dressing daily is important but not the most critical intervention. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring medication levels daily may be necessary but is not the priority after a nephrectomy. Choice D is irrelevant to the immediate postoperative care needed after a nephrectomy.
The client has been diagnosed with hemorrhoids. Which statement from the client indicates that further teaching is needed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice C indicates that further teaching is needed because taking a laxative every night and aiming to have a stool daily can lead to dependence and is not recommended for managing hemorrhoids. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate self-care measures for hemorrhoids, such as increasing fiber intake, using warm compresses/sitz baths, and using analgesic ointments or suppositories for pain relief.
The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct interventions for a client presenting with acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood are to assess the client's vital signs and start an IV with an 18-gauge needle. Assessing vital signs helps in determining the client's current condition and response to treatment, while starting an IV is crucial for administering medications and fluids. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation as the priority is to stabilize the client and address potential bleeding. Therefore, options A and B are correct choices, making option D the most appropriate answer.
Which nursing instruction should the nurse discuss with the client who is receiving glucocorticoids for Addison's disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because tapering glucocorticoids is crucial to prevent adrenal insufficiency, which can occur if the medication is stopped abruptly. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to dose adjustments during stress or infection, not discontinuation. Choice C is incorrect because it does not specifically address the issue of stopping the medication. Choice D is not directly related to the management of glucocorticoid therapy for Addison's disease.
Which laboratory data indicate the client's pancreatitis is improving?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Amylase and lipase are enzymes specifically related to pancreatitis. A decrease in their serum levels indicates improvement in pancreatitis. White blood cell count (WBC), choices C and D, are not direct markers for pancreatitis improvement. Bilirubin levels, choice C, are more related to liver function rather than pancreatitis. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level, choice D, is a marker for kidney function, not pancreatitis.
What intervention would be the most important for the nurse to implement for the client with a left nephrectomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important intervention for a client with a left nephrectomy is to assess the intravenous fluids for rate and volume. After nephrectomy, monitoring intravenous fluids is crucial to ensure proper hydration and kidney function. Changing the surgical dressing daily, monitoring medication levels, and tracking meal intake are also important aspects of care but not as critical as ensuring adequate intravenous fluid management post-surgery.
The nurse is told in report that the client has aortic stenosis. Which anatomical position should the nurse auscultate to assess the murmur?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Second intercostal space, right sternal border. The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second intercostal space, right sternal border, where the murmur of aortic stenosis is heard most clearly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not the recommended anatomical positions for auscultating the murmur of aortic stenosis.
Which nursing instruction should the nurse discuss with the client who is receiving glucocorticoids for Addison's disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to discuss the importance of tapering medications when discontinuing medication. Tapering glucocorticoids is crucial to prevent adrenal insufficiency, which can occur if the medication is stopped abruptly. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on adjustments during stress or infection, not discontinuation. Choice C is unrelated to the management of glucocorticoids. Choice D is important for emergency identification but is not directly related to medication management.
The nurse enters a client's room and the client is demanding release from the hospital. The nurse reviews the client's record and notes that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder, and the admission was voluntary. Which intervention should the nurse initiate first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for the nurse to initiate first is to notify the client's healthcare provider of the client's intention to leave the hospital. This is important to ensure that the client's care and safety are appropriately managed. Option A is incorrect as involving the family without proper assessment or intervention could violate the client's autonomy. Option B is incorrect because it does not involve the healthcare provider in the decision-making process. Option C is incorrect as it does not address the client's rights to make decisions about their own care.
The nurse writes a problem of "potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation" for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (choice A) is not directly related to monitoring or managing ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (choice C) is not relevant to the potential complication of ovarian hyperstimulation. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (choice D) is important but not the most appropriate intervention for managing ovarian hyperstimulation.
The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering a beta blocker as the blood pressure is within normal range. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C may indicate a potential adverse effect of another medication, but it does not specifically warrant questioning the administration of the beta blocker.
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