Nursing Elites

1. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is being treated with tamsulosin (Flomax). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this patient?

• A. Avoid lying down after taking the medication.
• B. Take the medication with meals.
• C. Report any side effects such as dizziness or fainting.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any side effects such as dizziness or fainting.' Patients taking tamsulosin should be advised to report any side effects, such as dizziness or fainting, which can occur due to orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding lying down after taking the medication, taking it with meals, or at bedtime are not specific teaching points related to the potential side effects of tamsulosin.

2. A patient with endometriosis is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera). What should the nurse include in the patient education?

• A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
• B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
• D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a patient with endometriosis who is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera), the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently, regardless of food intake. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Option D is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone is typically taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.

3. Nurse Sharie is assessing a parent who abused her child. Which of the following risk factors would the nurse expect to find in this case?

• A. Flexible role functioning between parents
• B. History of the parent having been abused as a child
• C. Single-parent home situation
• D. Presence of parental mental illness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'History of the parent having been abused as a child.' Research shows that a history of being abused as a child is a significant risk factor for child abuse. This cycle of abuse can sometimes continue from one generation to the next. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Flexible role functioning between parents, a single-parent home situation, and the presence of parental mental illness are important factors to consider in various contexts but may not specifically indicate a higher likelihood of child abuse in this case.

4. A woman suffers from amenorrhea. Which of the following medications will most likely be prescribed?

• A. Testosterone
• B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
• C. Estrogen
• D. Lactate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen is the correct answer. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is often due to hormonal imbalances. Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Prescribing estrogen can help address these hormonal imbalances and restore menstrual cycles. Testosterone (Choice A) is not typically prescribed for amenorrhea in women as it can further disrupt hormonal balance. Follicle-stimulating hormone (Choice B) is involved in stimulating ovulation and follicle development, not the primary treatment for amenorrhea. Lactate (Choice D) is not a medication used to treat amenorrhea.

5. Which of the following characterizes ductal carcinoma in situ?

• A. It is less common than lobular carcinoma in situ.
• B. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma.
• C. It is considered a cancer precursor.
• D. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma; it is considered a cancer precursor and has a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells that have not invaded the stroma, making it a cancer precursor with a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice A is incorrect because ductal carcinoma in situ is more common than lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice B is incorrect as it only partially describes ductal carcinoma in situ without mentioning its potential for progression to invasive cancer. Choice C is incorrect because it does not capture the complete characteristics of ductal carcinoma in situ, which include the risk for invasive cancer.

Similar Questions