ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology
1. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is being treated with tamsulosin (Flomax). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this patient?
- A. Avoid lying down after taking the medication.
- B. Take the medication with meals.
- C. Report any side effects such as dizziness or fainting.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any side effects such as dizziness or fainting.' Patients taking tamsulosin should be advised to report any side effects, such as dizziness or fainting, which can occur due to orthostatic hypotension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding lying down after taking the medication, taking it with meals, or at bedtime are not specific teaching points related to the potential side effects of tamsulosin.
2. When teaching a patient about the use of finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), what should the nurse emphasize about the expected outcomes of this therapy?
- A. Expect improvement in symptoms within a few days.
- B. Improvement in symptoms may take several weeks or months.
- C. Expect immediate improvement in urinary flow.
- D. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable as it works by shrinking the prostate gland over time. Therefore, patients should be informed that improvement in symptoms may not be immediate. Choice A is incorrect because improvement in symptoms is not expected within a few days. Choice C is incorrect as immediate improvement in urinary flow is not typical with finasteride. Choice D is incorrect because finasteride manages BPH symptoms but does not cure the condition.
3. A patient is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What important contraindication should the nurse emphasize during patient education?
- A. Use of nitrates
- B. History of hypertension
- C. History of peptic ulcer disease
- D. Use of antihypertensive medications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use of nitrates.' Sildenafil (Viagra) is contraindicated in patients using nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and sildenafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not direct contraindications for sildenafil use. While a history of hypertension or peptic ulcer disease may require caution, they are not absolute contraindications like the concomitant use of nitrates.
4. Which of the following women are at highest risk for the development of endometrial cancer?
- A. A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of high-risk human papillomavirus
- B. A 45-year-old woman who is obese and has menstrual irregularities with periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods.
- C. A 40-year-old woman who is overweight and has hypertension.
- D. A 55-year-old woman who smokes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Obesity and irregular menstrual cycles, including periods of amenorrhea and infrequent periods, are significant risk factors for the development of endometrial cancer. Choice A is less likely as postmenopausal status reduces the risk. Choice C is not directly associated with a high risk of endometrial cancer. Choice D, smoking, is more strongly linked to other types of cancers like lung cancer rather than endometrial cancer.
5. Which of the following characterizes ductal carcinoma in situ?
- A. It is less common than lobular carcinoma in situ.
- B. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma.
- C. It is considered a cancer precursor.
- D. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma; it is considered a cancer precursor and has a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells that have not invaded the stroma, making it a cancer precursor with a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice A is incorrect because ductal carcinoma in situ is more common than lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice B is incorrect as it only partially describes ductal carcinoma in situ without mentioning its potential for progression to invasive cancer. Choice C is incorrect because it does not capture the complete characteristics of ductal carcinoma in situ, which include the risk for invasive cancer.
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