ATI RN
ATI Nursing Specialty
1. A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is experiencing muscle pain or cramping during physical activity that resolves with rest. Which of the following symptoms is typically the initial reason clients with PAD seek medical attention?
- A. Intermittent claudication
- B. Dependent rubor
- C. Rest pain
- D. Foot ulcers
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication, which manifests as muscle pain or cramping during physical activity that improves with rest, is typically the initial reason clients with PAD seek medical attention. Dependent rubor, rest pain, and foot ulcers are more advanced symptoms of PAD and are not usually the initial reasons for seeking medical care.
2. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via a nasal cannula. The nurse should explain that this method of oxygen delivery does which of the following?
- A. Delivers a specific concentration of oxygen constantly
- B. Delivers a high concentration of oxygen
- C. Delivers a low concentration of oxygen
- D. Restricts the client's ability to eat, speak, or drink
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A nasal cannula is a device used for delivering supplemental oxygen to patients. It delivers a specific concentration of oxygen constantly, typically ranging from 1-6 liters per minute. This method is effective for patients who require low to moderate levels of oxygen. Choices B and C are incorrect because a nasal cannula does not deliver a high concentration of oxygen and is not considered a low concentration delivery method. Choice D is incorrect because a nasal cannula does not restrict the client's ability to eat, speak, or drink; it allows them to perform these activities while receiving oxygen therapy.
3. A client who is HIV-positive, has pneumonia and is not responding to antibiotic therapy may have active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) due to exposure history and symptoms of night sweats and hemoptysis. Which test is the most reliable to confirm the diagnosis of active pulmonary TB?
- A. Chest x-ray
- B. Presence of bronchophony
- C. Mantoux test
- D. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus. The most reliable test to confirm the diagnosis of active pulmonary TB is the sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus. This test helps identify the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of TB, in the sputum. Chest x-rays can show characteristic findings of TB but are not as reliable as sputum cultures for confirmation. Bronchophony is a test for assessing vocal resonance and is not specific for TB diagnosis. The Mantoux test is a screening test for TB exposure but cannot confirm active disease.
4. A client comes to the emergency department reporting chest pain that is sharp, knife-like, and localized to an area he points to with one finger. The nurse should document this chest pain as which of the following?
- A. Angina pectoris
- B. Cardiogenic pain
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Pleuritic pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pleuritic pain.' Pleuritic pain is characterized by sharp, knife-like pain that worsens with deep breathing or coughing and is localized to a specific area. This type of pain is often associated with inflammation of the pleura. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Angina pectoris is a type of chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Cardiogenic pain refers to pain originating from the heart itself. Myocardial infarction is the medical term for a heart attack.
5. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
- A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
- B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
- C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
- D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99