ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. An experiment is designed to determine specific cell types involved in cell-mediated immune response. The experimenter is interested in finding cells that attack cells that have specific antigens. Which cells should be isolated?
- A. Lymphokine-producing cells
- B. Cytotoxic T cells
- C. Helper T cells
- D. Macrophages
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cytotoxic T cells are the key players in cell-mediated immunity as they directly attack cells displaying specific antigens. Lymphokine-producing cells (Choice A) are involved in cytokine production, while Helper T cells (Choice C) assist in activating other immune cells. Macrophages (Choice D) are phagocytic cells that engulf and digest pathogens, but they are not the primary cells responsible for directly attacking cells with specific antigens in cell-mediated immunity.
2. A patient is receiving chloroquine (Aralen) for extraintestinal amebiasis. Which of the following medications should be administered with chloroquine?
- A. Iodoquinol (Yodoxin)
- B. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- C. Metyrosine (Demser)
- D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metronidazole (Flagyl). When treating extraintestinal amebiasis, chloroquine is often used in combination with metronidazole to ensure the eradication of the parasite. Metronidazole helps to target the infection more effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Iodoquinol (Yodoxin) is another antiprotozoal agent but is not typically used in combination with chloroquine for amebiasis. Metyrosine (Demser) is used in the management of pheochromocytoma, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is an anticonvulsant and mood-stabilizing drug, neither of which are indicated for extraintestinal amebiasis.
3. A patient with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, as a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by reducing bone resorption (breakdown) and maintaining or increasing bone density. This mechanism helps in preventing further bone loss and can even increase bone mass. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone (choice A), increase calcium absorption in the intestines (choice C), or increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys (choice D).
4. A male patient with erectile dysfunction is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). What specific instruction should the nurse provide to ensure the safe use of this medication?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid taking nitrates while on this medication.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime to ensure absorption during sleep.
- D. Take the medication with milk to enhance absorption.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide is to avoid taking nitrates while on sildenafil (Viagra). Combining sildenafil with nitrates can result in severe hypotension due to additive vasodilatory effects. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take sildenafil at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as taking sildenafil with milk has not been shown to enhance its absorption.
5. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II)?
- A. A patient who has experienced a spinal cord injury and reports severe, burning pain in his legs.
- B. A patient who reports severe pain in her hand following a surgery for carpal tunnel syndrome.
- C. A patient who develops pain in his foot following a fracture and immobilization with a cast.
- D. A patient who experiences chronic pain and swelling in his arm following a brachial plexus injury.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II) typically occurs after an injury to a peripheral nerve. In this case, a brachial plexus injury involves damage to the nerves that control muscles in the arm and hand, leading to chronic pain and swelling. Choices A, B, and C describe pain related to other conditions such as spinal cord injury, carpal tunnel surgery, and fracture immobilization, which are not typically associated with CRPS II.
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