ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. Which patient is most likely to be diagnosed with complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II)?
- A. A patient who has experienced a spinal cord injury and reports severe, burning pain in his legs.
- B. A patient who reports severe pain in her hand following a surgery for carpal tunnel syndrome.
- C. A patient who develops pain in his foot following a fracture and immobilization with a cast.
- D. A patient who experiences chronic pain and swelling in his arm following a brachial plexus injury.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Complex regional pain syndrome II (CRPS II) typically occurs after an injury to a peripheral nerve. In this case, a brachial plexus injury involves damage to the nerves that control muscles in the arm and hand, leading to chronic pain and swelling. Choices A, B, and C describe pain related to other conditions such as spinal cord injury, carpal tunnel surgery, and fracture immobilization, which are not typically associated with CRPS II.
2. A patient with a history of breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What critical information should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
- B. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain, so patients should monitor their diet.
- C. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, so patients should ensure adequate calcium intake.
- D. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if they occur.
3. A 45-year-old client is admitted with new-onset status epilepticus. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer IV fluids and monitor electrolytes.
- B. Administer antiepileptic medications as prescribed.
- C. Ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation.
- D. Monitor the client for signs of hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In a client with new-onset status epilepticus, the priority nursing intervention is to ensure a patent airway and prepare for possible intubation. This is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering IV fluids and monitoring electrolytes (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Administering antiepileptic medications (choice B) is essential but only after securing the airway. Monitoring for hypotension (choice D) is also important but not the priority when managing status epilepticus.
4. What is the most common cause of cancer-related deaths in both men and women?
- A. Lung cancer
- B. Breast cancer
- C. Colorectal cancer
- D. Prostate cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer-related deaths in both men and women globally. It is strongly associated with smoking and exposure to environmental toxins. Breast cancer (choice B) primarily affects women, while colorectal cancer (choice C) and prostate cancer (choice D) are more gender-specific. Colorectal cancer is more common in both men and women but not the leading cause of cancer-related deaths.
5. A patient is receiving finasteride (Proscar) for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which of the following is an expected outcome of the medication?
- A. Decrease in the size of the prostate gland.
- B. Improved urinary flow and decreased symptoms of urinary retention.
- C. Increased production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA).
- D. Reduction in the number of nocturnal awakenings.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Finasteride (Proscar) is used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia to improve urinary flow and decrease symptoms of urinary retention by reducing the size of the prostate gland. Choice A is incorrect because although finasteride may reduce the size of the prostate gland, the expected outcome relevant to the patient's symptoms is improved urinary flow rather than a specific change in gland size. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride actually decreases the production of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) due to its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect because although improved urinary flow may lead to a reduction in nocturnal awakenings, the main expected outcome of finasteride treatment is related to urinary symptoms.
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