ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A client receiving epoetin alfa therapy for anemia is being monitored for therapeutic effects. Which of the following laboratory values indicates the medication is effective?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Hematocrit
- C. Platelet count
- D. Red blood cell count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematocrit. An increase in hematocrit levels indicates the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia. Hematocrit reflects the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, so an increase in hematocrit signifies an improvement in the patient's red blood cell count and oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because white blood cell count, platelet count, and red blood cell count do not directly reflect the therapeutic effects of epoetin alfa in treating anemia.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client. Which of the following findings indicates the client may be at risk for an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with the adverse effects of furosemide. Hypertension is a condition that furosemide is often used to treat, increased urine output is an expected effect of furosemide, and hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.
3. A client has been prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client education related to this medication?
- A. This medication is prescribed for long-term therapy prophylaxis against anginal attacks
- B. Do not crush this medication
- C. Take the medication in the evening after dinner
- D. Do not take an additional tablet if you experience chest pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because isosorbide mononitrate is used for long-term prophylaxis against anginal attacks. Choice B is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate should not be crushed. Choice C does not specify a particular time for medication administration. Choice D is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate is not meant to be taken as needed for chest pain; it is part of a long-term therapy plan.
4. A client is prescribed propranolol. Which of the following client history findings would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription?
- A. Asthma
- B. Hypertension
- C. Tachydysrhythmias
- D. Urolithiasis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Asthma. Clients with asthma should avoid Beta2 Blockade agents like propranolol as they can lead to bronchoconstriction, potentially worsening asthma symptoms. Choice B, hypertension, is not a contraindication for propranolol; in fact, it is commonly prescribed for hypertension. Choice C, tachydysrhythmias, is often an indication for propranolol due to its antiarrhythmic properties. Choice D, urolithiasis, does not directly impact the use of propranolol.
5. A client is prescribed HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, atorvastatin. Which of the following should be monitored while this medication is prescribed?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Renal function tests
- C. Visual acuity screening
- D. Hearing screenings
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Atorvastatin, an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, can lead to hepatotoxicity, making it essential to monitor liver function tests regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atorvastatin primarily affects the liver, not the kidneys, vision, or hearing.
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