ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A client has been prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?
- A. Potassium supplements
- B. Ciprofloxacin
- C. Escitalopram
- D. Magnesium supplements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Clients taking lisinopril should avoid potassium supplements and potassium-sparing diuretics due to the risk of hyperkalemia. This interaction can lead to dangerously high levels of potassium in the blood, which can be harmful. Choice B, Ciprofloxacin, is not typically associated with a significant interaction with lisinopril. Choice C, Escitalopram, is an antidepressant and does not have a known significant interaction with lisinopril regarding potassium levels. Choice D, Magnesium supplements, are generally safe to take with lisinopril and do not pose a significant risk of hyperkalemia.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer ondansetron to a client. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse expect from this medication?
- A. Decreased nausea
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Increased heart rate
- D. Relief of headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased nausea. Ondansetron is classified as an antiemetic medication, which means it is used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Therefore, the nurse administering ondansetron should expect a therapeutic effect of decreased nausea. Choice B, increased appetite, is incorrect as ondansetron does not affect appetite. Choice C, increased heart rate, is incorrect as ondansetron does not have a direct effect on heart rate. Choice D, relief of headache, is also incorrect as the primary therapeutic effect of ondansetron is to alleviate nausea and vomiting, not headaches.
3. A nurse is caring for a client taking ciprofloxacin for an infection. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the client education?
- A. Constipation
- B. Tendon rupture
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Nasal congestion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tendon rupture. Ciprofloxacin belongs to the fluoroquinolone class of antibiotics, which is associated with the adverse effect of tendon rupture. Tendon rupture is a severe but rare side effect that can occur with the use of ciprofloxacin. Educating the client about this potential adverse effect is crucial to promote awareness and early recognition of symptoms, such as tendon pain, swelling, or inflammation. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and are less relevant for client education in this scenario.
4. A client is prescribed HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, atorvastatin. Which of the following should be monitored while this medication is prescribed?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Renal function tests
- C. Visual acuity screening
- D. Hearing screenings
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Atorvastatin, an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, can lead to hepatotoxicity, making it essential to monitor liver function tests regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atorvastatin primarily affects the liver, not the kidneys, vision, or hearing.
5. When administering amlodipine to a client with hypertension, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Constipation
- B. Facial flushing
- C. Hypotension
- D. Jaundice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the main adverse effects of amlodipine is hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation, facial flushing, and jaundice are not typically associated with amlodipine administration.
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