ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A 55-year-old client has levothyroxine ordered. Which of the below past medical history concerns may contraindicate with her medication management of hypothyroidism?
- A. Scleroderma
- B. Osteoporosis
- C. Asthma
- D. Peripheral Vascular Disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a concern with levothyroxine as it can increase the risk for fractures, particularly in older adults. Levothyroxine treatment can exacerbate bone loss in individuals with osteoporosis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly contraindicated with levothyroxine therapy for hypothyroidism.
2. A client is prescribed propranolol. Which of the following client history findings would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription?
- A. Asthma
- B. Hypertension
- C. Tachydysrhythmias
- D. Urolithiasis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Asthma. Clients with asthma should avoid Beta2 Blockade agents like propranolol as they can lead to bronchoconstriction, potentially worsening asthma symptoms. Choice B, hypertension, is not a contraindication for propranolol; in fact, it is commonly prescribed for hypertension. Choice C, tachydysrhythmias, is often an indication for propranolol due to its antiarrhythmic properties. Choice D, urolithiasis, does not directly impact the use of propranolol.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medication class benzodiazepines. The nurse would use caution when administering benzodiazepines to which of the below clients?
- A. A client with glaucoma
- B. A client with renal failure
- C. A client with hypertension
- D. A client with insomnia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzodiazepines should be used cautiously in clients with glaucoma because these medications can increase intraocular pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because renal failure, hypertension, and insomnia are not contraindications for administering benzodiazepines.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor during therapy?
- A. INR
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. aPTT
- D. Bilirubin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. The healthcare provider should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) value during heparin therapy to assess the client's coagulation status. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent bleeding or clotting issues. INR (Choice A) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Serum creatinine (Choice B) is not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy. Bilirubin (Choice D) is related to liver function, not heparin therapy.
5. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. Which of the following client assessments should the nurse monitor to prevent complications of therapy?
- A. Bowel sounds
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Oxygen saturation
- D. Fluid balance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is deep tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep tendon reflexes is crucial to assess for magnesium toxicity during therapy for preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate can lead to neuromuscular blockade, reflected by decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes. Assessing bowel sounds (choice A) is important for gastrointestinal function but is not directly related to magnesium sulfate therapy. Oxygen saturation (choice C) is vital for respiratory status but is not specifically linked to magnesium sulfate administration. Fluid balance (choice D) is essential but does not directly correlate with monitoring for complications of magnesium sulfate therapy in the context of preeclampsia.
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