Free ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn Assessment practice for ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn Assessment Quizlet (ATI RN). Answer 37 nursing exam-style questions wit
A newborn delivered at 41 weeks of gestation is showing signs of postmaturity. Which of the following findings is an indication of fetal postmaturity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Thin with loose skin.' Postmature newborns are typically thin with loose skin due to prolonged gestation. This may result from placental insufficiency, leading to reduced subcutaneous fat stores. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Soft, flexible ear cartilage (choice A) is a normal finding in newborns. Smooth soles without creases (choice B) are also typical in newborns. Vernix caseosa covering the body (choice D) is a protective, waxy coating found on newborns, which may be present in postmature infants as well.
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation about the glucose tolerance test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. During a glucose tolerance test, the client is required to drink a glucose solution, and blood samples are taken at specific intervals, typically over a period of 1 to 3 hours. In this case, the nurse should inform the client to expect the test to take about 1 hour. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no specific instruction to eat a low-carbohydrate diet for 3 days before the test, fast for 12 hours before the test, or limit fluid intake to water before the test in a standard glucose tolerance test.
A nurse is assessing a client who is in the first stage of labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes early decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Early decelerations are a benign finding that typically indicate fetal head compression, a normal response to uterine contractions. They do not require intervention as they are not associated with fetal compromise. The appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to continue to monitor the fetal heart rate. Repositioning the client, administering oxygen, or increasing IV fluids are not indicated responses to early decelerations and could be unnecessary or potentially harmful.
A nurse is providing care for a client who is in active labor and receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A contraction duration of 90 seconds can indicate uterine tachysystole, which may lead to fetal hypoxia. Uterine tachysystole is defined as more than five contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over a 30-minute window. Contractions every 2 minutes (Choice A) may occur in active labor but need to be assessed in conjunction with other factors. A fetal heart rate of 150/min (Choice C) is within the normal range. Urine output of 60 mL/hr (Choice D) is also within the expected range for a client in labor.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has gestational hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should report a urine output of 20 mL/hr. This finding can indicate decreased renal perfusion and possible development of preeclampsia, which is a severe complication of gestational hypertension. Inadequate urine output can suggest compromised kidney function and impaired maternal and fetal well-being. Options A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client with gestational hypertension and may not require immediate reporting to the provider.
A nurse is assessing a newborn who was delivered 6 hours ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A respiratory rate of 70/min in a newborn is above the expected range and may indicate respiratory distress, which should be reported to the provider. Choice B, vernix caseosa covering the skin, is a normal finding in newborns and does not require reporting. Choice C, milia on the bridge of the nose, is also a common finding in newborns and does not require immediate reporting. Choice D, acrocyanosis of the extremities, is a common finding within the first few hours of life in newborns and typically resolves on its own, so it does not need to be reported.
A nurse is preparing to administer terbutaline to a client who is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following statements by the client is an indication that the medication is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to stop uterine contractions. The client stating that the contractions have stopped indicates that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because feeling stronger contractions, a racing heart, or decreased fetal movement are not signs of terbutaline effectiveness in managing preterm labor.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has suspected placenta previa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct. Placenta previa typically presents with painless vaginal bleeding as the placenta is located over or near the cervical opening. This bleeding occurs because the placental vessels are stretched and bleed easily. Severe abdominal pain (choice B) is not a typical finding in placenta previa. Uterine contractions (choice C) are more characteristic of preterm labor rather than placenta previa. Increased fetal movement (choice D) is not a specific finding associated with placenta previa.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum and has an episiotomy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement to include in the teaching is to apply a cold pack to the perineal area for the first 24 hours. This helps reduce swelling and promote comfort, aiding in the healing process after an episiotomy. Option A is incorrect as it does not provide specific guidance on managing postpartum recovery. Option C is incorrect because using a sitz bath once per week may not be frequent enough for proper wound care. Option D is incorrect because beginning Kegel exercises immediately after delivery can put excessive strain on the perineal area, potentially hindering healing.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A respiratory rate of 10/min is significantly low and indicates potential magnesium toxicity, which can lead to respiratory depression. This finding should be reported to the provider immediately for further evaluation and management. Urine output of 30 mL/hr is within the expected range during magnesium sulfate therapy and does not require immediate reporting. Deep tendon reflexes 2+ are a normal finding and do not indicate any immediate concerns. The client reporting feeling warm is a common side effect of magnesium sulfate and does not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other symptoms.
A client in the first stage of labor is experiencing lower back pain and asks the nurse what can be done to relieve the pain. Which of the following interventions should the nurse suggest?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Applying counterpressure to the sacrum can help alleviate lower back pain during labor by reducing pressure on the nerves. Effleurage on the abdomen, back massage with lavender oil, and administering opioid analgesics are not specifically targeted at relieving lower back pain, making them less effective interventions in this scenario.
A nurse is preparing to administer Rh immune globulin to a client who is 28 weeks gestation. The nurse should understand that Rh immune globulin is administered to prevent which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Rh incompatibility. Rh immune globulin is administered to prevent the formation of antibodies in clients who are Rh-negative and have been exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood. Severe preeclampsia (choice B) is a condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to organs, not prevented by Rh immune globulin. Placental abruption (choice C) is the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, not prevented by Rh immune globulin. Erythroblastosis fetalis (choice D) is a condition where maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells due to Rh incompatibility, which Rh immune globulin helps prevent.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum and has a prescription for ibuprofen for perineal pain. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Take the medication with food.' Ibuprofen can cause gastrointestinal upset, so it is essential for the client to take the medication with food to minimize this side effect. Choice A, 'Take the medication on an empty stomach,' is incorrect because ibuprofen should be taken with food to prevent stomach irritation. Choice B, 'Take the medication only at bedtime,' is incorrect as there is no specific timing requirement for ibuprofen administration related to bedtime. Choice D, 'Take the medication with caffeine,' is incorrect as there is no benefit in combining ibuprofen with caffeine, and caffeine could potentially worsen gastrointestinal side effects.
A client at 37 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test. What information should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Drinking orange juice before the nonstress test can increase fetal movement, which is essential for an accurate reading. Choice A is incorrect because oxytocin is not typically administered during a nonstress test. Choice B is incorrect as fasting is not required before this test. Choice D is incorrect as a full bladder is not necessary for a nonstress test.
A client who is 12 weeks pregnant and experiencing nausea and vomiting is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'You should avoid consuming liquids with your meals.' This advice is essential because avoiding drinking liquids with meals can help prevent overdistension of the stomach, which can worsen nausea. Option A is incorrect because eating foods high in protein before bedtime may not directly address the issue of nausea and vomiting. Option C is incorrect as eating three large meals a day may exacerbate nausea due to overeating or having an empty stomach for an extended period. Option D is incorrect as consuming caffeine can actually worsen nausea in pregnant clients.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings indicates magnesium toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, leading to a decreased respiratory rate. A respiratory rate of 10/min is abnormally low and indicates magnesium toxicity. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (Choice B) is a common sign of magnesium toxicity. Polyuria (Choice D) is not a typical finding of magnesium toxicity.
A nurse is caring for a newborn who is large for gestational age (LGA). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Newborns who are large for gestational age (LGA) are at risk for hypoglycemia due to increased insulin production. Hyperbilirubinemia (Choice A) is more commonly associated with ABO or Rh incompatibility. Hypercalcemia (Choice C) is not a common finding in LGA newborns. Hypothermia (Choice D) may occur in newborns who are small for gestational age (SGA) due to a lack of subcutaneous fat for insulation, but it is not typically associated with LGA newborns.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum and has a prescription for methylergonovine. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following adverse effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Headache. Methylergonovine can cause vasoconstriction, leading to headaches. It is important for the client to report this adverse effect to the provider as it may indicate a serious complication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methylergonovine is not typically associated with diarrhea, nausea, or increased vaginal bleeding as common adverse effects.
A client who is postpartum reports abdominal cramping during breastfeeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Abdominal cramping during breastfeeding is common due to the release of oxytocin. Ibuprofen, an analgesic, is suitable for relieving discomfort. Administering oxytocin is unnecessary and may exacerbate the cramping. Placing a warm compress may not address the underlying cause of the cramping. Changing positions may provide temporary relief but does not address the cause of the cramping.
A nurse is assessing a newborn who was delivered 24 hours ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Jaundice occurring within the first 24 hours of life is a sign of pathological jaundice and should be reported to the provider. Caput succedaneum, acrocyanosis, and overlapping cranial sutures are common findings in newborns and do not necessarily require immediate reporting unless they are severe or indicate other underlying issues.
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The client reports the urge to have a bowel movement and begins to bear down during contractions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to perform rapid, shallow breathing. The urge to bear down during contractions indicates the second stage of labor, and pushing prematurely can lead to complications. Rapid, shallow breathing helps prevent pushing until the cervix is fully dilated. Choice B is incorrect because preparing for an emergency cesarean birth is not indicated based on the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as pelvic tilts are not appropriate when the client is already bearing down. Choice D is incorrect since applying counterpressure to the sacrum is not the priority when the client is showing signs of advancing labor.
A nurse is providing prenatal education to a client who is in the second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Calcium intake is crucial during pregnancy to support fetal bone development. The nurse should educate the client to increase their calcium intake. Choice A is incorrect because fetal movements are usually felt around 18-25 weeks, not at 12 weeks. Choice C is incorrect as exercise is generally encouraged during pregnancy, including the second trimester, as long as it is not high-impact or risky. Choice D is incorrect as folic acid intake is essential during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects, and pregnant individuals are usually advised to increase their folic acid intake.
A client is experiencing preterm labor and is receiving betamethasone. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct answer: Option B. Betamethasone is a glucocorticoid used to promote fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. Option A is incorrect because betamethasone does not prevent contractions. Option C is incorrect as betamethasone does not prevent early labor but helps improve fetal lung development. Option D is incorrect as betamethasone does not increase the baby's weight.
A nurse is caring for a newborn who has neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a newborn with neonatal abstinence syndrome is to swaddle the newborn tightly. Swaddling helps to provide comfort and reduce irritability in these newborns. Choice B, providing frequent tactile stimulation, may exacerbate the symptoms of neonatal abstinence syndrome by overstimulating the newborn. Choice C, positioning the newborn in a prone position, is not recommended as it increases the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Choice D, offering large feedings every 4 hours, is not appropriate as newborns with neonatal abstinence syndrome may have feeding difficulties and need smaller, more frequent feedings.
A client who is 2 days postpartum and breastfeeding reports nipple soreness. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to apply breast milk to the nipples after feedings. Breast milk has healing properties and can help soothe sore nipples. Option A is incorrect because avoiding the use of a breast pump does not directly address nipple soreness. Option C is incorrect as feeding the newborn less frequently can lead to engorgement and further complications. Option D is incorrect as using a nipple shield during feedings may not address the underlying issue of soreness and can sometimes even worsen the situation.
A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 2 days old and has a total serum bilirubin level of 18 mg/dL. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Initiate phototherapy. Phototherapy is the primary treatment for a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia, as it helps to break down excess bilirubin in the skin. Administering glucose water (choice A) is not indicated for treating hyperbilirubinemia. Feeding the newborn formula (choice B) or offering sterile water (choice C) will not directly address the elevated bilirubin levels in the newborn.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because facial swelling can indicate preeclampsia, a serious condition during pregnancy that requires immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), heartburn (choice C), and frequent urination (choice D) are common discomforts during pregnancy and are not typically indicative of a serious complication like preeclampsia at 32 weeks of gestation.
A client who is breastfeeding is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to offer both breasts at each feeding. This practice helps ensure the baby receives hindmilk from both breasts, promoting adequate milk intake and stimulating milk production. Option A is incorrect as newborns should be breastfed on demand rather than on a strict schedule. Option C is inappropriate as it can interfere with establishing and maintaining a sufficient milk supply. Option D is inaccurate as newborns typically do not sleep through the night at one month; they need to feed frequently for proper growth and development.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin for labor induction. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate require immediate intervention as they can indicate fetal distress due to uteroplacental insufficiency. This finding suggests a compromised blood flow to the fetus, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Contraction frequency and duration are important to monitor but do not necessitate immediate intervention unless they are causing fetal distress. Urine output of 50 mL/hr is within the normal range for a client in labor and does not require immediate intervention.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postpartum and is receiving oxytocin to control postpartum bleeding. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg.' Hypotension can be a side effect of oxytocin administration. A blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg should be reported to the provider. Choice B, 'Uterine contractions,' is an expected finding as oxytocin is used to stimulate uterine contractions. Choice C, 'Urine output 150 mL in 2 hours,' is within the expected range postpartum. Choice D, 'Client reports cramping,' is a common finding due to uterine contractions and is not a cause for concern unless excessive or severe.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum and had a cesarean birth. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client who is postpartum and had a cesarean birth is to not lift anything heavier than her newborn. This precaution is crucial to prevent injury to the healing incision site and allow for proper recovery. Choice A is incorrect as it implies resuming abdominal exercises in 2 weeks, which may strain the incision area. Choice C is incorrect because the client should wait longer than 1 week before driving to ensure they can perform emergency maneuvers if needed. Choice D is incorrect as resuming sexual activity in 2 weeks may put strain on the healing tissues and increase the risk of complications.
A nurse is providing care to a client who is in active labor. The nurse observes variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take first when observing variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate is to reposition the client from side to side. Variable decelerations are often caused by umbilical cord compression, and repositioning the client can relieve pressure on the cord. Administering oxygen, increasing the IV infusion rate, and notifying the provider can be appropriate actions but repositioning the client takes priority in addressing variable decelerations.
A client in the first trimester of pregnancy who is experiencing nausea is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy experiencing nausea is to consume small, frequent meals. This helps alleviate nausea by preventing an empty stomach and maintaining stable blood sugar levels. Drinking water with meals can sometimes exacerbate nausea, especially in the case of morning sickness. Eating high-fat foods can be heavy on the stomach and worsen nausea. Lying down after eating can lead to reflux and is not recommended, especially for pregnant individuals experiencing nausea.
A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL in a newborn is significantly low and indicates hypoglycemia, which can be dangerous in a newborn. Hypoglycemia in a newborn can lead to neurological issues and requires immediate attention. The other findings provided, such as a respiratory rate of 50/min, blood pressure of 60/40 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 140/min, are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by clinical signs of distress.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and breastfeeding. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent mastitis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To prevent mastitis, the nurse should instruct the client to ensure that the newborn empties one breast before switching to the other. This helps to prevent milk stasis, reducing the risk of inflammation and infection. Choice A is incorrect because feeding on demand is recommended to establish a good milk supply and prevent engorgement. Choice B is incorrect as warm compresses are usually applied before feeding to promote milk flow. Choice C is incorrect because massaging the breast after feedings can actually increase the risk of mastitis by causing further irritation.
A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 1 day old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Yellow-tinged skin. Yellow-tinged skin within the first 24 hours of life can indicate pathological jaundice and should be reported to the provider. High heart rate (Choice A), normal axillary temperature (Choice B), and slightly elevated respiratory rate (Choice D) are common findings in newborns and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless they persist or are significantly abnormal.
A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 1 day old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Yellow-tinged skin. Yellow-tinged skin within the first 24 hours of life can indicate pathological jaundice and should be reported to the provider. High heart rate (Choice A), normal axillary temperature (Choice B), and slightly elevated respiratory rate (Choice D) are common findings in newborns and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless they persist or are significantly abnormal.
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