rn ati capstone proctored comprehensive assessment form b RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. What is the primary intervention for a client diagnosed with delirium?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a quiet and calm environment to minimize confusion. For clients diagnosed with delirium, creating a tranquil setting can help reduce agitation and disorientation. This intervention aims to decrease stimuli that may exacerbate symptoms. Administering medication (choice B) is not the primary intervention for delirium; it is usually reserved for specific underlying causes. While social interaction (choice C) and physical activity (choice D) are beneficial for overall well-being, they are not the primary interventions for managing delirium.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for amoxicillin clavulanate to treat pharyngitis. Which statement indicates understanding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client should never double the dose if a dose is missed. This can lead to an overdose, which can cause serious adverse effects. Instead, the client should take the next dose as scheduled or consult the provider for guidance.

3. Which therapeutic technique is recommended for clients with somatic symptom disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic technique recommended for clients with somatic symptom disorder is to limit the amount of time the client spends discussing symptoms. By doing so, the focus can be shifted away from the illness, helping the client to manage their condition better. Encouraging complete bed rest (Choice A) is not typically recommended as it may reinforce illness behaviors. Monitoring the client's food intake (Choice C) may not directly address the psychological aspects of somatic symptom disorder. Educating the client on lifestyle changes (Choice D) is important but may not be as effective initially as limiting symptom-focused discussions.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for cimetidine. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider identify as the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated AST level is indicative of liver damage, which is the priority finding to report to the provider when administering cimetidine. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. Monitoring liver function is crucial when using cimetidine, as it can sometimes lead to hepatotoxicity. The other laboratory findings are within normal ranges and not directly associated with cimetidine administration.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding indicates the condition is worsening?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased shortness of breath. In COPD, worsening symptoms often include increased shortness of breath due to impaired lung function. This indicates a decline in respiratory status and the need for prompt intervention. Choice B, decreased wheezing, is not indicative of worsening COPD as it could suggest better airflow. Choice C, productive cough with green sputum, may indicate an infection but not necessarily worsening COPD. Choice D, a slight increase in fatigue, is non-specific and may not directly correlate with the worsening of COPD.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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