ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a client with heart failure. Which of the following medications should the nurse clarify with the provider?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Digoxin
- D. Ibuprofen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can worsen heart failure due to its effects on renal function and fluid retention. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the use of Ibuprofen with the provider. Choices A, B, and C (Furosemide, Spironolactone, and Digoxin) are commonly prescribed medications for heart failure that help manage symptoms and improve cardiac function, so they do not need clarification in this scenario.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for amoxicillin clavulanate to treat pharyngitis. Which statement indicates understanding?
- A. I will double my dose if I miss one
- B. I should take this medication on an empty stomach between meals
- C. I will take the medication until my sore throat goes away
- D. I will stop taking this medication if I develop itching
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client should never double the dose if a dose is missed. This can lead to an overdose, which can cause serious adverse effects. Instead, the client should take the next dose as scheduled or consult the provider for guidance.
3. A nurse is assessing a client's wound dressing and observes a watery red drainage. The nurse should document this drainage as which of the following?
- A. Purulent
- B. Serous
- C. Sanguineous
- D. Serosanguineous
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, serosanguineous. Serosanguineous drainage is thin, watery, and pale red, indicating a mixture of serous fluid and blood. Choice A (purulent) refers to thick, yellow or green drainage indicating infection. Choice B (serous) is thin, clear drainage. Choice C (sanguineous) is bright red, indicating fresh bleeding.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for cimetidine. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare provider identify as the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. WBC count 9,000/mm3
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 50 units/L
- D. Fasting glucose 105 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated AST level is indicative of liver damage, which is the priority finding to report to the provider when administering cimetidine. Elevated liver enzymes can be a sign of liver toxicity or damage. Monitoring liver function is crucial when using cimetidine, as it can sometimes lead to hepatotoxicity. The other laboratory findings are within normal ranges and not directly associated with cimetidine administration.
5. A client has a new prescription for beclomethasone inhaler to use with an albuterol inhaler for asthma maintenance. What should the nurse instruct the client?
- A. Skip doses if breathing improves
- B. Use the albuterol inhaler first
- C. Gargle with water after each use
- D. Store inhaler in the refrigerator
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to gargle with water after each use of the beclomethasone inhaler. Beclomethasone can cause oral thrush, and gargling with water helps prevent this complication. Choice A is incorrect because the client should not skip doses even if breathing improves, as the medications are prescribed for maintenance. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific instruction to use the albuterol inhaler first in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect because inhalers should not be stored in the refrigerator unless specified by the manufacturer.
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