Free ATI Medical Surgical practice for ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam (ATI RN). Answer 50 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and prog
A nurse cares for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who has been prescribed continuous oxygen therapy at home. Which statement indicates the client correctly understands the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cotton balls can decrease pressure ulcers from the oxygen tubing. Continuous oxygen orders mean the client should wear the oxygen at all times. Oxygen fuels a fire. Wearing oxygen while grilling & smoking increases the risk for fire.
When caring for an older adult client with a pulmonary infection, what action should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the client's level of consciousness is the priority because it provides crucial information on the client's neurological status and response to the infection. Changes in consciousness can indicate deterioration or improvement in the client's condition, guiding further interventions and treatment.
During an asthma attack, a healthcare provider is assessing a client for hypoxemia. Which of the following manifestations should the provider expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During an asthma attack, hypoxemia can lead to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain, causing symptoms like restlessness, confusion, and agitation. These manifestations result from the body's response to low oxygen levels, aiming to increase oxygenation. Nausea, dysphagia, and hypotension are not typical manifestations of hypoxemia during an asthma attack.
During an acute asthma attack in a client with asthma, what medication should the nurse administer first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During an acute asthma attack, the priority is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing. Short-acting beta agonists, like albuterol, are the first-line medications as they rapidly relax bronchial muscles, providing immediate relief. Oral corticosteroids are used as adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation over time, while leukotriene receptor antagonists and long-acting beta agonists are not appropriate for immediate relief during an acute attack.
A client is caring for a postoperative client on the surgical unit. The client's blood pressure was 142/76 mm Hg 30 minutes ago and is now 88/50 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is best?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the significant drop in blood pressure indicates a potential emergency situation. The correct action is to call the Rapid Response Team (RRT) to ensure prompt intervention and prevent further deterioration that could lead to respiratory or cardiac arrest. It is crucial to act swiftly in response to such a critical change in vital signs to provide the client with the necessary care and support.
A client interested in smoking cessation is being taught by a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select one that does not apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When teaching a client interested in smoking cessation, the nurse should advise finding an activity that keeps the hands busy, keeping healthy snacks on hand, making a list of reasons for quitting smoking, and not being upset if a relapse occurs. Drinking eight glasses of water each day is a healthy habit but is not directly related to smoking cessation strategies, making it the option that does not apply in this context.
A client with heart failure expresses feelings of burden and thoughts of death to a nurse. How should the nurse respond?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Depression can occur in clients with heart failure, especially in older adults. When a client expresses thoughts of being a burden and death, it is crucial for the nurse to address these concerns. Offering to talk more about the client's feelings provides an opportunity for open communication and a deeper understanding of the client's emotions. Open-ended questions like the one in choice A encourage the client to express themselves freely, leading to better assessment and client-centered care. Choices B and C fail to address the client's emotional distress directly, and choice D diverts the focus without addressing the client's immediate concerns.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has postoperative atelectasis and is hypoxic. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Postoperative atelectasis can lead to hypoxia, which causes respiratory distress. Intercostal retractions, where the muscles between the ribs pull inward during inspiration, are a common sign of respiratory distress in a client with atelectasis. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), Bradypnea (slow breathing rate), and lethargy are not typically associated with atelectasis and hypoxia.
A client is 12 hours postoperative following colon resection. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan to reduce respiratory complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Following a colon resection surgery, it is essential to support the incision site to reduce the risk of respiratory complications. Splinting the incision helps to minimize pain during coughing, aiding in effective clearing of secretions and preventing respiratory problems. This intervention supports the client's respiratory function postoperatively, promoting optimal recovery.
A healthcare provider is preparing to admit a client to the PACU who received a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent. Which of the following items should the provider place at the client's bedside?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client receives a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent, it can lead to respiratory muscle paralysis. Placing a bag valve mask device at the client's bedside is crucial for providing immediate respiratory support in case of respiratory depression or failure. This device allows manual ventilation by squeezing the bag to deliver breaths to the client. The other options, such as a defibrillator machine, chest tube equipment, and central venous catheter tray, are not directly related to managing respiratory complications associated with neuromuscular blockade.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of this disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes is a hallmark symptom of rheumatoid arthritis. This prolonged morning stiffness is typically a distinguishing feature of rheumatoid arthritis compared to other types of arthritis, making it the most characteristic assessment finding for this disease.
A client has a newly inserted chest drainage system with a water seal. Which of the following actions should be taken?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Keeping the collection device below the level of the client's chest ensures proper drainage and prevents backflow of fluid into the patient's chest. This position allows gravity to assist in the drainage process. Clamping the tube when the client is ambulating can cause a buildup of pressure in the chest drainage system, potentially leading to complications. Carefully coiling the tubes is important to prevent obstructions and kinks that could impede the flow of drainage. Positioning the client flat may not be ideal as it could hinder proper drainage and increase the risk of leaks in the tubing.
A client has returned from the surgical suite following surgery for a fractured mandible with intermaxillary fixation. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Preventing aspiration is the priority for a client with intermaxillary fixation following mandibular surgery. Aspiration can occur due to difficulty swallowing or improper positioning, posing a serious risk to the client's respiratory status. It is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client's airway is clear and that they are positioned correctly to prevent any potential aspiration events.
A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What action should the nurse anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For clients on heparin therapy, a PTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal range is required to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. The normal PTT range is 25 to 35 seconds. In this case, the client's PTT of 25 seconds falls below the therapeutic range, indicating that the heparin dose is insufficient. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.
A nurse assesses a client who has a history of heart failure. Which question should the nurse ask to assess the extent of the client's heart failure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with a history of heart failure generally have negative findings, such as shortness of breath. The nurse needs to determine whether the client's activity is the same or worse, or whether the client identifies a decrease in activity level. Trouble breathing, chest pain, breathlessness at night & peripheral edema are symptoms of heart failure, but do not provide data that can determine the extent of the client's heart failure.
When caring for a client with pneumonia, what intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most effective intervention to prevent the spread of infection when caring for a client with pneumonia is performing hand hygiene before and after client contact. This practice helps reduce the transmission of pathogens from one person to another, promoting infection control and maintaining a safe environment for both the client and healthcare provider.
A client with tuberculosis is starting combination drug therapy. Which of the following medications should the nurse NOT plan to administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes virus infections, not tuberculosis. Rifampin, Isoniazid, and Pyrazinamide are all commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Therefore, the nurse should not plan to administer Acyclovir to a client with tuberculosis.
A client with a tracheostomy experienced a coughing spell during a meal that was being fed by an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). What action by the nurse takes priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's lung sounds to check for signs of aspiration, which can compromise the client's oxygenation. This is crucial to ensure the client's immediate safety and respiratory status. Once the client has been assessed, the nurse can then consider consulting with the registered dietitian regarding appropriate thickened liquids for future meals. Assigning a different UAP or reporting the UAP to the manager may be necessary steps but not the immediate priority in this situation.
When a client develops an airway obstruction from a foreign body but remains conscious, which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client develops an airway obstruction and remains conscious, the nurse's initial action should be to administer the abdominal thrust maneuver. This technique, also known as the Heimlich maneuver, can help dislodge the obstructing object and clear the airway. Inserting an oral airway, turning the client to the side, or performing a blind finger sweep are not recommended as the first interventions for a conscious individual with an airway obstruction.
A client who will undergo a bronchoscopy procedure with a rigid scope and general anesthesia will have their neck in which of the following positions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a bronchoscopy with a rigid scope and general anesthesia, the provider will typically place the client's neck in a hyperextended position to allow better visualization and access to the airways. This position helps to align the trachea for easier insertion of the scope.
While suctioning the endotracheal tube of a client on a ventilator, the nurse notices an increase in the client's heart rate from 86/min to 110/min, with irregularity. What should the nurse do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client's heart rate increases and becomes irregular during suctioning of an endotracheal tube, it indicates potential hypoxemia. Performing pre-oxygenation before suctioning helps prevent hypoxemia and subsequent dysrhythmias. This intervention ensures that the client has adequate oxygen reserves before the procedure, reducing the risk of complications related to suctioning.
A healthcare professional auscultates a harsh hollow sound over a client's trachea & larynx. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The healthcare professional has identified bronchial breath sounds, which are normal findings over the trachea & larynx, characterized by harsh, hollow, tubular, and blowing sounds. The appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional is to document these normal findings. Oxygen therapy, administering albuterol, or repositioning the client is unnecessary as this finding does not indicate a need for intervention.
A client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) requires care planning. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), placing the client in a prone position helps improve ventilation-perfusion matching and oxygenation. This position can optimize lung function and is a beneficial intervention for clients with ARDS. Administering low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula, encouraging oral intake of excess fluids, or offering high-protein and high-carbohydrate foods are not primary interventions for ARDS and may not directly address the respiratory distress experienced by the client.
A nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes. What is the most important aspect of teaching the nurse should focus on?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Proper administration of insulin is crucial for clients with type 1 diabetes as they are dependent on insulin for blood glucose control.
A client with a tracheostomy is being cared for by a nurse. The client's partner has been taught to perform suctioning. Which of the following actions by the partner should indicate to the nurse a readiness for the client's discharge?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When the partner can independently perform the suctioning procedure, it demonstrates a readiness for the client's discharge. This indicates that the partner has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge to provide safe care for the client at home without the direct supervision of healthcare professionals.
A nurse is observing the closed chest drainage system of a client who is 24 hr post thoracotomy. The nurse notes slow, steady bubbling in the suction control chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a closed chest drainage system, slow, steady bubbling in the suction control chamber is an expected finding, indicating proper functioning of the system. There is no immediate need for intervention as this indicates the system is working as intended. The nurse should continue to monitor the client's respiratory status for any signs of distress or changes. Checking tubing connections for leaks or clamping the chest tube are unnecessary actions based on the information provided. Checking the suction control outlet on the wall is also not indicated in this scenario.
A client had a stroke involving the right cerebral hemisphere. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A stroke affecting the right cerebral hemisphere can lead to poor impulse control due to the involvement of this area in regulating behavior and inhibiting impulses. Deficits in the right visual field are associated with stroke affecting the left cerebral hemisphere. Inability to discriminate words and letters may be seen in left cerebral hemisphere strokes. Motor retardation may be observed with strokes affecting motor areas in either hemisphere but is not the most specific finding related to a right cerebral hemisphere stroke.
When performing tracheostomy care, which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, it is essential to ensure that the airway is maintained and secured at all times. Securing new tracheostomy ties before removing the old ones helps prevent accidental decannulation and ensures continuous airway patency. Aseptic technique is crucial to prevent infections but is not directly related to securing the tracheostomy ties. Cleaning the inner cannula with mild soap and water is important for maintaining hygiene but does not address the immediate need for securing the airway. Applying suction when inserting the catheter is not a standard practice during tracheostomy care.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who had a myocardial infarction. Upon auscultating heart sounds, the provider hears the following sound. What action by the provider is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The sound described is an S3 heart sound, which can indicate heart failure. The next appropriate action for the provider is to listen to the client's lung sounds. Lung sounds can provide additional information about the client's condition, especially when abnormal heart sounds are present. Calling the Rapid Response Team is not warranted based solely on the heart sound assessment. Having the client sit upright is not directly related to addressing the abnormal heart sound.
A client with a long history of smoking is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding is a common complication of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In COPD, a prolonged expiratory phase is a typical finding caused by airway obstruction and air trapping. This results in difficulty expelling air from the lungs, leading to the characteristic prolonged exhalation in individuals with COPD.
A client is wearing a Venturi mask to receive oxygen, and the dinner tray has arrived. What action by the nurse is best?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should determine if the client can safely switch to a nasal cannula during meals. It is crucial to ensure that the provider has approved this change. Oxygen is considered a medication and should be delivered continuously. Turning off the oxygen or lifting the mask while eating can lead to a decrease in the FiO2 delivered, potentially compromising the client's oxygenation status. Therefore, the best course of action is to ascertain if transitioning to a nasal cannula is appropriate for the client during the meal.
A client with diabetes is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What should the nurse administer first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first intervention for a client experiencing hypoglycemia is administering 15-20 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate orally. If the client is conscious and able to swallow, providing quick-acting carbohydrates helps raise blood glucose levels rapidly and effectively. This approach is preferred over other options like administering insulin, dextrose solution intravenously, or glucagon, which are not the initial interventions for hypoglycemia.
A client with asthma is being taught about peak flow meter use. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Using the peak flow meter every morning is crucial for monitoring asthma control and making timely treatment adjustments. While using the meter when feeling short of breath or before using an inhaler can also be beneficial, the daily morning routine helps in consistent management of asthma symptoms.
A client has a tracheostomy that is 3 days old. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client's face is puffy, and the eyelids are swollen. What action by the nurse takes priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client may have subcutaneous emphysema, where air leaks into the tissues surrounding the tracheostomy. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and other indicators of oxygenation to ensure adequate oxygen supply. If the client is stable, the nurse can then proceed to palpate the skin of the upper chest to check for subcutaneous emphysema. If the client is unstable, the nurse should promptly notify the Rapid Response Team. Using a bag-valve-mask device may be necessary for oxygenating the client, but assessing oxygen saturation comes first to guide further interventions.
A client is being admitted to the surgical unit from the PACU following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority assessment for a client being admitted to the surgical unit following a cholecystectomy is oxygen saturation. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation, especially after surgery. Hypoxia can have serious consequences and needs to be promptly addressed. While assessing bowel sounds, surgical dressing, and temperature are important, oxygen saturation takes precedence in this situation.
A client with asthma is taking fluticasone. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Fluticasone is a corticosteroid often used to manage asthma. One of the common adverse effects associated with inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone is oral candidiasis, also known as thrush. This fungal infection can develop in the mouth and throat due to the steroid's local immunosuppressive effects. Patients should be advised to rinse their mouths after using inhaled corticosteroids to reduce the risk of oral candidiasis. Monitoring for symptoms such as white patches, sore throat, or difficulty swallowing is essential to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly.
A client is being treated for inhalational anthrax following bioterrorism exposure. Which of the following medications should NOT be expected as a common treatment for anthrax?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Penicillin G is NOT commonly used to treat anthrax. Anthrax is typically treated with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin and doxycycline due to penicillin's limited efficacy against anthrax bacteria. Amoxicillin is also not a preferred choice for anthrax treatment. Therefore, penicillin G would not be expected as a primary medication for anthrax treatment following bioterrorism exposure.
A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During an acute exacerbation of asthma, the priority is to administer a short-acting beta2-agonist like Albuterol (Proventil) first. Albuterol acts quickly to dilate the airways and provide immediate relief of bronchospasm. Ipratropium (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic that can be used as an adjunct therapy. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting beta2-agonist intended for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone (Flovent) is a corticosteroid used for long-term asthma control and should not be the initial medication given during an acute exacerbation.
A client learns about pursed-lip breathing. Which statement by the client indicates teaching has been effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct technique for pursed-lip breathing involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips. This technique helps improve expiration and reduce air trapping. Breathing in quickly, holding the breath, or breathing in and out through pursed lips does not align with the correct method of pursed-lip breathing.
A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.
During an assessment of the respiratory pattern of an older adult client receiving end-of-life care, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as Cheyne-Stokes respirations?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by a pattern of breathing that ranges from very deep to very shallow with periods of apnea (temporary cessation of breathing). This pattern is often seen in clients near the end of life or with certain medical conditions affecting the respiratory control center in the brain. The alternating deep and shallow breaths can be distressing for both the client and caregivers. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this pattern to provide appropriate care and support to the client and their family during this challenging time.
A client is in the immediate postoperative period following a partial laryngectomy. Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client following a partial laryngectomy, the priority assessment is always airway patency. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and prevent any complications related to airway obstruction. Monitoring airway patency takes precedence over other assessments such as pain severity, wound drainage, and tissue integrity. Any compromise in airway patency requires immediate intervention to maintain the client's respiratory function and safety.
A client's arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.3 and a PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg. The client is experiencing which of the following acid-base imbalances?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In respiratory acidosis, there is an excess of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 > 45 mm Hg) leading to a decrease in pH (<7.35). The given values of a pH of 7.3 and PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg indicate respiratory acidosis. Metabolic acidosis involves a primary decrease in bicarbonate levels with a compensatory decrease in PaCO2 to maintain balance. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Respiratory alkalosis is marked by low PaCO2 and increased pH levels.
A client with cirrhosis is experiencing ascites. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a client with cirrhosis experiencing ascites, the nurse should instruct them to consume a low-sodium diet. This dietary modification helps reduce fluid retention and manage ascites by decreasing the amount of sodium in the body, which helps prevent fluid accumulation in the abdomen. Limiting sodium intake is crucial in managing ascites and preventing further complications in clients with cirrhosis.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving nutrition education. Which nutrition information should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select ONE that does not apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Avoiding drinking fluids just before and during meals helps prevent bloating in clients with COPD. Resting before meals if experiencing dyspnea can aid in improving breathing during meals. Having approximately six small meals a day can reduce bloating and help with easier digestion. However, consuming high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying is not advisable for clients with COPD, as fibrous foods can lead to gas production, abdominal bloating, and increased shortness of breath. Clients with COPD should focus on increasing calorie and protein intake to prevent malnourishment. Increasing carbohydrate intake should also be avoided, as it can raise carbon dioxide production and worsen dyspnea.
During an assessment, a client with a long history of smoking and suspected laryngeal cancer will most likely report which early manifestation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with laryngeal cancer, hoarseness is often one of the earliest manifestations due to vocal cord involvement. The irritation and inflammation caused by the tumor affect the vocal cords, leading to changes in voice quality. Dysphagia (choice A) typically occurs later as the tumor grows and interferes with swallowing. Dyspnea (choice C) and weight loss (choice D) may occur as the cancer progresses, but hoarseness is usually among the first signs to manifest in laryngeal cancer.
A nurse assesses a client who has a mediastinal chest tube. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (Select ONE that does not apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with a mediastinal chest tube, the presence of pink sputum does not necessarily require immediate intervention. However, tracheal deviation could indicate a tension pneumothorax, sudden shortness of breath could signal tube issues or pneumothorax, and drainage exceeding 70 mL/hr might suggest hemorrhage. Disconnection at the Y site could lead to air entering the tubing, necessitating prompt attention.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following surgical repair of a mandibular fracture with fixed occlusion of the jaws in a closed position. Which of the following statements is the priority for the nurse to make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A healthcare professional is caring for four clients on intravenous heparin therapy. Which lab value possibly indicates a serious side effect has occurred?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low platelet count, as seen in choice B, is concerning as it could indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of blood clotting, potentially causing severe complications. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during heparin therapy to promptly identify and manage this adverse effect.
A healthcare professional is caring for four clients on intravenous heparin therapy. Which lab value possibly indicates a serious side effect has occurred?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low platelet count, as seen in choice B, is concerning as it could indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of blood clotting, potentially causing severe complications. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during heparin therapy to promptly identify and manage this adverse effect.
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