ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to prevent injury?
- A. Perform weight-bearing exercises.
- B. Avoid crossing the legs beyond the midline.
- C. Avoid sitting in one position for prolonged periods.
- D. Splint the affected area.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises are crucial for preventing bone density loss in clients with osteoporosis. These exercises help strengthen bones and reduce the risk of fractures. Option B, avoiding crossing the legs beyond the midline, is not directly related to preventing injury in osteoporosis. Option C, avoiding sitting in one position for prolonged periods, is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not specifically address preventing injury in osteoporosis. Option D, splinting the affected area, is not a standard recommendation for preventing injury in osteoporosis.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Serum calcium level
- B. Blood glucose level
- C. Serum albumin level
- D. Serum sodium level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Facial flushing
- B. Syncope
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- B. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
- C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- D. Bile-colored drainage from the surgical site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bile-colored drainage from the surgical site can indicate a bile leak, which is an abnormal finding and should be reported. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges for a postoperative client. Serosanguineous wound drainage, which is a mix of blood and serum, is expected following a surgery like cholecystectomy. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not findings that require immediate reporting.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in a patient receiving digoxin?
- A. Monitor potassium levels
- B. Monitor sodium levels
- C. Monitor calcium levels
- D. Monitor glucose levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Potassium levels should be monitored closely in a patient receiving digoxin to avoid hypokalemia. Digoxin can increase the risk of developing life-threatening arrhythmias in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring sodium, calcium, or glucose levels is not specifically necessary for patients on digoxin, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.
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