Free ATI RN Exit practice for ATI RN Exit Exam (ATI RN). Answer 81 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking on Nursing Eli
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take is to flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride every 4 hours. This helps maintain patency and prevents clogs during enteral feedings. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees (Choice A) is important for preventing aspiration but is not directly related to tube care. Changing the feeding bag every 48 hours (Choice B) is not a standard practice as the bag should be changed every 24 hours to prevent bacterial growth. Administering the feeding through a large-bore syringe (Choice C) is incorrect as enteral feedings should be given through an appropriate feeding pump for accuracy and safety.
When caring for a client with a new prescription for enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT, what is an appropriate action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When administering enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT, the nurse should inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall. This site is preferred for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin to reduce the risk of bleeding or injury. Expelling air bubbles, massaging the injection site, or administering an NSAID for discomfort are not appropriate actions and could lead to complications or ineffective medication delivery.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Vision changes are a common sign of digoxin toxicity, which can be serious and should be reported to the provider immediately. Changes in heart rate, blood pressure, or respiratory rate are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting vision changes to ensure prompt assessment and intervention.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Take this medication on an empty stomach.' Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Taking it with food or at bedtime can interfere with its absorption. Calcium supplements should also be avoided when taking levothyroxine as they can reduce its absorption.
A client is receiving discharge teaching regarding a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. It is crucial for clients to complete the entire course of antibiotics as prescribed, even if symptoms improve. This helps to ensure that the infection is fully treated and reduces the risk of developing antibiotic resistance. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication when symptoms disappear can lead to incomplete treatment. Choice C is incorrect as amoxicillin can be taken with or without food. Choice D is incorrect because taking amoxicillin with milk can decrease its absorption.
A nurse is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) during a staffing shortage. Which client should be delegated to the LPN?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because the client postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube set to continuous suction requires routine postoperative care, which an LPN can manage. Choice A involves administering blood products, which typically requires assessment and monitoring by a registered nurse. Choice B indicates a potentially serious neurological condition that requires assessment by a higher-level provider. Choice D suggests a client experiencing respiratory distress, which requires immediate assessment and intervention by a registered nurse or physician.
A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client, the nurse should apply sterile gloves before cleansing the perineal area to prevent infection. Performing perineal care before the procedure is incorrect as it should be done after catheter insertion. Placing the client in a side-lying position is not necessary for this procedure. Lubricating the catheter with petroleum jelly is not recommended as it can damage the catheter; using a water-soluble lubricant is preferred.
A charge nurse is educating a group of unit nurses about delegating client tasks to assistive personnel. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement is D: 'An RN evaluates the client's needs to determine which tasks are appropriate to delegate to assistive personnel.' This is an essential step in the delegation process to ensure that tasks are assigned appropriately based on the client's condition and the competencies of the assistive personnel. Option A is incorrect because while the nurse retains accountability for delegation decisions, the AP is responsible for their actions. Option B is incorrect as tasks should be within the AP's scope of practice regardless of training. Option C is incorrect as delegation typically involves assigning tasks from the RN to the AP, not between APs.
A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Enuresis is the correct finding to expect in a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Enuresis, or involuntary urination, is a common symptom of UTIs in children. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is not typically associated with UTIs. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is less likely in UTIs as there is often an increased urge to urinate. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of UTIs and is more indicative of gastrointestinal issues.
A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Regular exercise is an essential component in managing hypertension. Exercising for at least 30 minutes a day, at least 5 days a week, can help control blood pressure. Checking blood pressure regularly (choice A) is important, but not as indicative of understanding the teaching as the commitment to regular exercise. Avoiding foods high in potassium (choice B) is not a typical recommendation for managing hypertension. Taking medication only when feeling dizzy (choice D) is incorrect and potentially dangerous; medications should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider.
A nurse is developing a care plan for a client who has paraplegia and has an area of nonblanchable erythema over the ischium. Which intervention should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with nonblanchable erythema over the ischium is to teach the client to shift his weight every 15 minutes while sitting. This action helps relieve pressure on the affected area and prevents further skin breakdown. Placing the client upright on a donut-shaped cushion (Choice A) may not address the need for frequent weight shifts. Turning and repositioning the client every 3 hours (Choice C) is important for overall skin health but may not provide adequate relief for the specific area of nonblanchable erythema. Assessing pressure points every 24 hours (Choice D) is not frequent enough to prevent worsening of the skin condition in this case.
A nurse realizes that the wrong medication has been administered to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse to take after realizing that the wrong medication has been administered to a client is to monitor vital signs. Monitoring vital signs is crucial as it allows the nurse to promptly assess for any immediate adverse effects that may result from the wrong medication. This immediate assessment is essential for ensuring the client's safety and well-being. Notifying the provider (choice A) and reporting the incident to the nurse manager (choice B) are important steps to take, but they should come after ensuring the client's immediate safety. Filling out an incident report (choice D) is also necessary but should be done after addressing the client's immediate needs.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Urinary retention is an adverse effect of morphine, as it can lead to the relaxation of the detrusor muscle and sphincter constriction in the bladder. Diaphoresis, hypotension, and tachycardia are common side effects of morphine due to its vasodilatory effects and impact on the autonomic nervous system. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating, which can be a normal response to pain or fever. Hypotension and tachycardia can occur due to morphine's vasodilatory effects and its impact on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, the presence of urinary retention would indicate the need for further assessment and intervention.
A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about delegation. Which task should the nurse delegate to assistive personnel (AP)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Assisting a client with ambulation post-surgery is a task that can be appropriately delegated to assistive personnel (AP) as it falls within their scope of duties. Teaching a new mother how to breastfeed and helping with medication administration involve assessments and critical thinking that are typically within the scope of licensed nursing staff, not AP. Delegating IV medication administration involves a higher level of skill and knowledge that should be performed by licensed nursing staff.
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and has gestational hypertension. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening gestational hypertension and should be reported to the provider. Sudden weight gain in a client with gestational hypertension can be a sign of fluid retention, which could worsen the hypertension and lead to complications like preeclampsia. The other options, blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg, fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dL, and urinary output of 40 mL/hr, are within normal limits for a client with gestational hypertension and do not pose an immediate concern that requires reporting to the provider.
A nurse is caring for a client who has Crohn's disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Bloody stools. Bloody stools are a common symptom of Crohn's disease, characterized by inflammation of the digestive tract. Weight gain (choice A) is less likely due to malabsorption issues associated with Crohn's disease. Urinary retention (choice C) is not directly related to Crohn's disease. Abdominal distention (choice D) may occur in Crohn's disease but is not as specific a finding as bloody stools.
A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Peripheral edema. In right-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump blood efficiently, leading to fluid backup in the body. This fluid retention commonly manifests as peripheral edema, causing swelling in the legs, ankles, and feet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss is not typically associated with right-sided heart failure; bradycardia (slow heart rate) is more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism or athletes, not specifically in right-sided heart failure; and a dry cough is more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, not typically with right-sided heart failure.
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to place the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve breathing by expanding the lungs and aiding in better oxygenation. Encouraging the client to take deep breaths may not be effective in managing dyspnea in COPD as it can lead to fatigue. Administering a bronchodilator may be necessary but placing the client in a high-Fowler's position should be the priority. Administering oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask may also be needed, but positioning is the initial intervention to optimize respiratory function.
A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to eat a light snack before bedtime. Consuming a light snack can help promote sleep by preventing discomfort from hunger. Choice A is incorrect because staying in bed for too long when unable to fall asleep can lead to frustration and worsen insomnia. Choice B is incorrect as taking a nap during the day can interfere with nighttime sleep. Choice C is incorrect as exercising before bed can increase alertness and make falling asleep more difficult.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and reports perineal pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering analgesics as prescribed is the appropriate intervention for managing perineal pain in a postpartum client. Analgesics help to alleviate discomfort and promote the client's recovery. Applying a warm compress (choice B) may provide some relief, but it does not address the pain as effectively as analgesics. Encouraging ambulation (choice C) and positioning the client with the head elevated (choice D) are not directly related to addressing perineal pain.
A nurse is preparing to reposition a client who had a stroke. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to evaluate the client's ability to help with repositioning. When caring for a client who had a stroke, assessing their ability to participate in repositioning is crucial for promoting safety and encouraging their involvement in their care. This evaluation helps determine the level of assistance needed and supports the client's autonomy. Option A is incorrect because raising the side rails alone does not address the client's active involvement in repositioning. Option B is incorrect as using assistive devices may be necessary for safe repositioning. Option C is incorrect as discussing preferences is important but does not directly address the client's ability to assist in repositioning.
A client with a new prescription for furosemide should increase intake of which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, which means it can lead to low potassium levels in the body. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods helps counteract this effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide should not necessarily be taken on an empty stomach, at bedtime, or specifically avoided with food.
What is the appropriate nursing response when a patient refuses blood transfusion due to religious beliefs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: "Respect the patient's decision and notify the provider." When a patient refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs, it is essential to respect their autonomy and religious beliefs. Attempting to persuade the patient (Choice B) goes against the principle of respect for autonomy and can lead to ethical dilemmas. Documenting the refusal and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice C) is important for legal and ethical purposes but should be preceded by respecting the patient's decision. Providing education on the benefits of blood transfusion (Choice D) may be appropriate in other situations but is not indicated when a patient refuses based on religious beliefs.
How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a stage 2 pressure ulcer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using a hydrocolloid dressing is the appropriate care for a stage 2 pressure ulcer because it provides a moist healing environment, promotes healing, and helps to prevent infection. Cleaning the area with normal saline (Choice A) is important but not the primary treatment for a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Applying antibiotic ointment (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there is a sign of infection. Changing the dressing daily (Choice D) may disrupt the healing process and is not recommended unless the dressing is soiled or compromised.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement the nurse should include when teaching a client taking clopidogrel is to monitor for signs of infection. Clopidogrel affects platelet levels and can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because a compromised immune system can make the client more susceptible to infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because clopidogrel is not directly linked to alcohol restrictions, food requirements, or specific water intake instructions.
A hospice nurse is visiting with the son of a client who has terminal cancer. The son reports sleeping very little during the past week due to caring for his mother. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Offering information about respite care is a therapeutic response that supports the caregiver. Choice B suggests a quick fix with sleeping pills without addressing the underlying issue of caregiver stress. Choice C, though empathetic, does not offer practical assistance or support. Choice D, while positive, does not address the son's need for rest and support.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.
A client is experiencing a seizure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a seizure, it is essential to loosen tight clothing around the client to prevent injury and promote adequate ventilation. Placing any objects, like a tongue depressor, in the client's mouth can lead to airway obstruction or injury. Restraining the client's arms and legs can exacerbate the situation by increasing muscle rigidity and potentially causing injury. Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is not typically indicated during a seizure unless respiratory distress is present.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postpartum and is breastfeeding her newborn. The client asks the nurse to warm up seaweed soup that the client's partner brought for her. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Agreeing to heat up the seaweed soup respects the client's cultural preferences and promotes a positive postpartum experience. Seaweed soup is a traditional food in some cultures, often believed to support recovery and breastfeeding. The nurse's supportive response fosters cultural sensitivity, which is crucial in providing patient-centered care.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a closed head injury and has an intraventricular catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to reduce the risk for infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor the insertion site for redness. This intervention helps detect signs of infection early in clients with intraventricular catheters. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees is important for managing intracranial pressure but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Administering IV antibiotics prophylactically is not recommended as a routine practice due to the risk of antibiotic resistance and should only be done based on culture results. Changing the catheter insertion site every 24 hours is unnecessary and increases the risk of introducing new pathogens.
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Heart rate of 60/min. A heart rate of 60/min is borderline bradycardia, which can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so any further decrease in heart rate should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are within the normal range and not specifically related to potential digoxin toxicity, so they do not require immediate reporting.
A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing laboratory findings for a school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'Hct 40%'. An abnormal hematocrit (Hct) level can indicate various conditions such as dehydration, overhydration, or blood disorders, and requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. Hgb 12.5 g/dL (Choice A) is a normal hemoglobin level, Platelets 250,000/mm3 (Choice B) is a normal platelet count, and WBC 14,000/mm3 (Choice C) is slightly elevated but not significantly high to require urgent reporting.
How should fluid overload in a patient with heart failure be managed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering diuretics is the appropriate management for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to reduce fluid retention by increasing urine output, thereby alleviating the fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by adding more fluid to an already overloaded system. Providing oral fluids is not specific enough to address the excess fluid in the body, and chest physiotherapy is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure patients.
A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is unrelated to furosemide therapy. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit calcium-rich foods while taking furosemide.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario of early decelerations noted during labor with electronic fetal monitoring, the nurse should expect head compression. Early decelerations are a normal response to fetal head compression during contractions and are not indicative of fetal distress. Choice A, fetal hypoxia, is incorrect as early decelerations are not associated with fetal oxygen deprivation. Choices C and D, placenta previa and umbilical cord prolapse, are unrelated to the scenario described and do not cause early decelerations.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hr postpartum and is breastfeeding her newborn. The client asks the nurse to warm up seaweed soup that her partner brought for her. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Respecting cultural preferences and providing client-centered care promotes trust.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial to detect any bleeding complications and ensure prompt intervention if necessary. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not appropriate as some medications may need to be administered during dialysis. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension (Choice B) is not directly related to the immediate post-dialysis care. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not recommended as timing of medication administration should be based on the specific antibiotic and its pharmacokinetics.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the care plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to increased risk of bleeding. Stool softeners help prevent straining during bowel movements, which can reduce the risk of bleeding in individuals with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is unrelated to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control rather than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is more about reducing the risk of infection rather than managing thrombocytopenia.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin is to inject the medication deep into subcutaneous tissue. This method helps ensure proper absorption of the medication and prevents tissue irritation. Injecting into the deltoid muscle (Choice A) is not recommended for enoxaparin administration. Massaging the injection site (Choice C) can lead to tissue damage and bruising. Inserting the needle at a 10-degree angle (Choice D) is not the correct technique for administering enoxaparin.
A client has a nasogastric tube and is receiving intermittent enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding contents. Administering a bolus feeding over 10 minutes (choice A) may not prevent aspiration as effectively as elevating the head of the bed. Flushing the tube with sterile water before feedings (choice C) is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (choice D) is not the recommended action to prevent aspiration; elevating the head of the bed is more effective.
A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection in clients receiving parenteral nutrition. Measuring the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours is important for clients on insulin therapy or with diabetes, but it is not directly related to TPN administration. Weighing the client weekly is essential for monitoring fluid status and nutritional progress, but it is not specific to TPN care. Administering TPN through a peripheral IV line is incorrect because TPN solutions are hypertonic and can cause phlebitis or thrombosis if administered through a peripheral line; a central venous access is typically used for TPN administration.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to check the placement of the nasogastric tube every 8 hours. This is crucial to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach, reducing the risk of complications such as aspiration. Administering the feeding using a large-bore syringe (Choice A) is not recommended for enteral nutrition. Flushing the tube with water every 6 hours (Choice C) is not necessary for continuous enteral nutrition. Maintaining the client in an upright position (Choice D) is generally preferred to reduce the risk of aspiration, but it is not the most critical action compared to verifying tube placement.
A client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: "I will take this medication in the morning before breakfast." Levothyroxine should be taken in the morning before breakfast to improve absorption and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because the duration of levothyroxine therapy is usually long-term and not limited to 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because levothyroxine should not be taken with antacids as they may decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to avoid foods that contain iodine while taking levothyroxine.
While caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours is essential when managing a client on TPN to monitor for hyperglycemia, a common complication. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important but not a priority in this scenario. Administering a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice B) is not indicated as it is unrelated to managing TPN. Flushing the TPN line with sterile water (Choice D) is necessary, but it should be done with 0.9% sodium chloride, not water.
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Start the transfusion with 0.9% sodium chloride. 0.9% sodium chloride is the only IV solution that is compatible with blood products and should be used to prime the tubing before a transfusion. Choice A is incorrect because vital signs should be monitored more frequently, typically every 15 minutes at the beginning of the transfusion. Choice C is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered over 2-4 hours, not 6 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the first 500 mL of blood should be infused slowly over 1-2 hours to monitor for any adverse reactions.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has cholecystitis. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Whole milk. Clients with cholecystitis should avoid high-fat foods, and whole milk contains high levels of fat. Bananas, oatmeal, and brown rice are generally considered safe for clients with cholecystitis as they are low in fat and easily digestible. Bananas are a good source of potassium, oatmeal is high in fiber, and brown rice provides complex carbohydrates. Therefore, the nurse should advise the client to avoid whole milk but can recommend the other choices as part of a balanced diet for cholecystitis.
A client has had a nasogastric tube in place for 2 days. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Epistaxis.' Epistaxis (nosebleed) is a common adverse effect of prolonged nasogastric tube insertion due to irritation of the nasal mucosa. Dry mucous membranes (choice A) may indicate dehydration but are not a direct adverse effect of nasogastric tube insertion. Polyuria (choice B) is excessive urination and is not typically associated with nasogastric tube insertion. Diarrhea (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of having a nasogastric tube in place.
A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer medications to a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube is to check for tube placement. This step is crucial to ensure that the NG tube is correctly positioned in the stomach and not in the respiratory tract, reducing the risk of aspiration. Flushing the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride, administering the medications as a bolus, or dissolving the medications in sterile water should only be done after confirming the proper placement of the NG tube. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they precede the essential step of verifying tube placement.
What is the best intervention for a patient presenting with respiratory distress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is the most critical intervention for a patient in respiratory distress as it helps improve oxygenation levels. Oxygen therapy aims to increase oxygen saturation in the blood, providing relief and support during episodes of respiratory distress. Administering bronchodilators may be beneficial in some cases, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation. Repositioning the patient may help optimize ventilation but does not directly address the primary need for increased oxygen. Providing humidified air can offer comfort but does not address the urgent need for improved oxygen levels in a patient experiencing respiratory distress.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration in clients receiving enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed during feedings. This position helps prevent regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Administering feedings over 10 minutes (Choice B) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Placing the client in a lateral position after feedings (Choice D) does not address the risk of aspiration during the feeding process.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is lower than the normal range, indicating thrombocytopenia, which is concerning in clients receiving chemotherapy. Thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Choices A, B, and C fall within the normal range and would not be a cause for concern in a client receiving chemotherapy.
During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.
A nurse is planning care for a client who practices Orthodox Judaism and is observing the Passover holiday. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the Passover holiday, individuals practicing Orthodox Judaism follow dietary restrictions that include avoiding leavened bread. Providing unleavened bread aligns with these restrictions and ensures the client's observance of the holiday. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serving chicken with cream sauce, avoiding fish with fins and scales, and avoiding foods containing lamb are not specific dietary requirements related to observing Passover in Orthodox Judaism.
A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the unit due to a staffing shortage. Which of the following clients should the nurse delegate to the LPN?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube can be delegated to an LPN as this involves routine postoperative care. Option A involves administering packed RBCs which requires assessment and monitoring for potential adverse reactions, not suitable for delegation to an LPN. Option B requires neurological assessment and close monitoring due to the concussion, which is beyond the scope of an LPN. Option D involves a client with a recent fracture and shortness of breath, which requires urgent assessment and intervention beyond the LPN's scope of practice.
A nurse in an emergency department completes an assessment on an adolescent client with conduct disorder. The client threatened suicide to a teacher at school. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asking about alcohol intake is crucial in assessing the client's risk factors and behaviors, especially in the context of a suicide threat. Understanding alcohol consumption patterns can help the nurse evaluate potential substance abuse issues and their impact on the client's mental health. Choices A, B, and D are less pertinent to the immediate concern of assessing suicide risk and conduct disorder symptoms.
What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.
A nurse is providing education to a client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has gestational diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement the nurse should make is that gestational diabetes can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life. This information is crucial for the client's understanding of the potential long-term implications of gestational diabetes. Monitoring blood glucose levels closely (Choice B) is also important but does not address the long-term risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Choices A and D are incorrect as increasing protein intake during pregnancy and avoiding exercise are not recommended strategies for managing gestational diabetes.
What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, bronchodilators like albuterol are crucial to help dilate the airways and improve breathing. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority intervention. Starting IV fluids (Choice C) and monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the most critical interventions during an acute asthma attack.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a wound infection and is receiving gentamicin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to detect an adverse effect of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Creatinine. Gentamicin can cause nephrotoxicity, leading to impaired kidney function. Monitoring creatinine levels helps the nurse detect any potential kidney damage. Choice B, Aspartate aminotransferase (AST), is not typically affected by gentamicin. Choice C, White blood cell count, is not directly related to gentamicin adverse effects. Choice D, Serum glucose, is not specifically monitored for gentamicin adverse effects.
A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about the correct use of restraints. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct use of restraints is crucial to ensure patient safety. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated is a safe practice as it prevents falls and provides a level of protection without directly restraining the child. Placing a belt restraint on a child with seizures (Choice A) is inappropriate as it may restrict movement and cause harm during a seizure. Securing wrist restraints to bed rails for an adolescent (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to injuries and compromise circulation. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant with a cleft lip injury (Choice C) is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of restraint and is not a standard practice in this situation.
A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who reports cocaine use 1 hour ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Elevated temperature. Cocaine is a stimulant drug that can lead to increased body temperature. Hypotension (Choice A) is less likely as cocaine tends to elevate blood pressure. Memory loss (Choice B) and slurred speech (Choice C) are more commonly associated with depressant drugs rather than stimulant drugs like cocaine.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nuchal rigidity is a classic sign of bacterial meningitis and indicates inflammation of the meninges. It is characterized by neck stiffness and pain upon neck flexion. Flaccid paralysis (Choice B) is not typically associated with bacterial meningitis but rather conditions like Guillain-Barre syndrome. Bradycardia (Choice C) and hypothermia (Choice D) are not commonly seen in bacterial meningitis; instead, patients may present with fever, tachycardia, and signs of systemic inflammation.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.
A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is being taught about foot care by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Trim your toenails straight across to prevent injury.' In clients with diabetes, trimming toenails straight across is essential to prevent ingrown toenails and injury. Choice A is incorrect because soaking feet in warm water can lead to dryness, which is not recommended for diabetic foot care. Choice C is incorrect as applying lotion between the toes can create excess moisture, increasing the risk of fungal infections. Choice D is incorrect because although cotton socks are recommended, the primary purpose is to prevent moisture buildup, not specifically to keep the feet dry.
A client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty is at risk for hip dislocation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent this complication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to prevent hip dislocation. Placing an abduction pillow between the client's legs helps maintain proper alignment and prevents the hip from dislocating. This position aids in keeping the hip in a neutral or slightly outwardly rotated position, reducing the risk of dislocation. Placing the client supine with a pillow between the legs (Choice A) or using a trochanter roll (Choice D) may not provide the same level of abduction and support needed to prevent hip dislocation. Placing a pillow under the client's knees (Choice B) does not provide the necessary support to maintain proper hip alignment in this situation.
A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses, for chest pain. This dosing regimen helps relieve chest pain associated with angina by promoting vasodilation. Option A is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue, not swallowed with water. Option B is incorrect because taking nitroglycerin with food may decrease its effectiveness. Option D is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are meant to be dissolved under the tongue, not swallowed whole.
What is the initial step when a patient is experiencing chest pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is the initial step in managing chest pain. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation levels in the blood, which is crucial in cases of chest pain. Repositioning the patient, providing pain relief, or administering nitroglycerin may be necessary steps depending on the underlying cause, but administering oxygen takes precedence as it addresses the primary concern of oxygen supply to the body during chest pain.
A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. What intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress management techniques can help reduce the frequency and severity of Raynaud's episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a cool temperature can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect as epinephrine is not typically used for Raynaud's disease. Choice D is incorrect as glucocorticoid steroids are not the first-line treatment for Raynaud's disease.
A nurse working in a rehabilitation facility is developing a discharge plan for a client who has left-sided hemiplegia. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Ensure that the client has a referral for physical therapy.' For a client with left-sided hemiplegia, physical therapy is crucial in restoring function and mobility. It is the nurse's priority to ensure the client receives the necessary rehabilitation services. Consulting with a case manager about insurance coverage (Choice A) is important but not the priority at this stage. Counseling caregivers on respite care options (Choice B) and referring the client to a local stroke support group (Choice D) are also valuable but not as essential as ensuring the client has access to physical therapy for rehabilitation.
A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with cirrhosis, the liver is unable to produce clotting factors efficiently, leading to impaired clotting function. Therefore, an increased prothrombin time is expected in cirrhosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Decreased bilirubin levels are not typically seen in cirrhosis; prothrombin time is usually increased, not decreased; and albumin levels are often decreased in cirrhosis due to reduced synthetic liver function.
A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 1-day old and receiving phototherapy for jaundice. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep the infant's head covered with a cap. This helps regulate the newborn's body temperature during phototherapy. Option A, feeding the infant glucose water every 2 hours, is incorrect because it is not a standard intervention for newborns receiving phototherapy. Option B, ensuring the newborn wears a diaper, may be necessary for hygiene but is not directly related to phototherapy. Option D, applying lotion to the newborn every 4 hours, is unnecessary and not indicated for managing jaundice or phototherapy.
Which medication is used to manage hyperthyroidism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Methimazole is the correct answer. It is commonly used to manage hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. Levothyroxine (Choice A) is actually a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing thyroid hormones. Propylthiouracil (Choice C) is another anti-thyroid medication used in the management of hyperthyroidism. Prednisone (Choice D) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Calf pain on dorsiflexion following knee surgery may indicate a complication such as deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition requiring medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal range for a client post knee surgery and do not typically indicate immediate complications that require urgent reporting.
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), is within normal limits.
A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'Serosanguineous wound drainage.' Serosanguineous drainage should be reported in postoperative clients as it may indicate complications such as infection or impaired wound healing. Options A, B, and C are expected findings in a postoperative client. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal function, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range, and scant urine output may be expected initially due to factors like anesthesia and fluid shifts postoperatively.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Calf pain on dorsiflexion following knee surgery may indicate a complication such as deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition requiring medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal range for a client post knee surgery and do not typically indicate immediate complications that require urgent reporting.
A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), is within normal limits.
A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'Serosanguineous wound drainage.' Serosanguineous drainage should be reported in postoperative clients as it may indicate complications such as infection or impaired wound healing. Options A, B, and C are expected findings in a postoperative client. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal function, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range, and scant urine output may be expected initially due to factors like anesthesia and fluid shifts postoperatively.
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