Free ATI Fundamentals practice for ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam (ATI RN). Answer 52 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tra
A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.
A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
A client with active tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement indicating understanding of tuberculosis medication regimen is 'I will wash my hands each time I cough.' This statement shows knowledge of infection control practices to prevent the spread of tuberculosis. Washing hands after coughing helps in reducing the transmission of the disease to others. The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect as each medication in the regimen has a specific role, and substituting one for another can compromise the effectiveness of treatment. Option C is incorrect as obtaining sputum specimens is essential for monitoring treatment response. Option D is incorrect as the client should still adhere to infection control measures and avoid exposing others to tuberculosis.
Which of the following measures is not recommended to prevent pressure ulcers?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Massaging a reddened area can cause further tissue damage by increasing pressure on already compromised skin. The other options, such as using specialized mattresses, adhering to repositioning schedules, and maintaining good skin care, are all recommended strategies to prevent pressure ulcers by reducing pressure and friction on vulnerable areas of the skin.
During a client's first hospitalization, which of the following actions ensures the safety of the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a client's first hospitalization, it is essential to keep unnecessary furniture out of the way to prevent obstacles and ensure a safe environment. This action helps reduce the risk of accidents or falls, promoting the client's safety and well-being. Keeping the lights on at all times may not be necessary and can disrupt the client's rest. Keeping side rails up at all times can restrict the client's movement and independence unnecessarily. Keeping all equipment out of view may hinder the healthcare team's ability to monitor and access necessary tools for providing care.
What is the term for the body's ability to defend itself against specific invading agents such as bacteria, toxins, viruses, and foreign bodies?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Immunity. Immunity refers to the body's ability to protect itself against specific invading agents like bacteria, toxins, viruses, and foreign bodies by recognizing and destroying them. It is a crucial defense mechanism that helps maintain health and prevent infections and diseases. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hormones are chemical messengers, secretion is the process of releasing substances, and glands are organs that produce and release substances, none of which specifically relate to the body's defense against invading agents.
A client who is at 38 weeks gestation, is in active labor, and has ruptured membranes is being cared for by a nurse. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a client in active labor with ruptured membranes, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a fetal heart rate monitor. This helps monitor the well-being of the fetus during labor and delivery, enabling timely interventions if any fetal distress is detected. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter may be required in some cases, but it is not the priority in the given scenario. Fundal massage is typically done after delivery to help the uterus contract and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Initiating an oxytocin IV infusion may be indicated to augment labor, but it is not the initial action needed in this situation.
When caring for a client on pressure support ventilation (PSV), which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of PSV?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pressure support ventilation (PSV) is a mode that delivers a preset pressure when the client initiates a breath. This support helps the client to breathe spontaneously by reducing the work of breathing. The correct statement indicating an understanding of PSV is that it allows preset pressure to be delivered during spontaneous ventilation, as it assists the client's efforts without controlling the rate or volume of each breath.
A client has left homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with left homonymous hemianopsia, there is a loss of vision on the right side of both eyes. Placing the bedside table on the right side of the bed ensures that essential items are within the client's field of vision, minimizing the risk of injury or accidents. Teaching the client to scan to the right and orienting them using the clock method may be helpful strategies, but placing the bedside table on the right side of the bed is a more direct and immediate intervention to enhance the client's safety and independence.
The physician orders a platelet count to be performed on Mrs. Smith after breakfast. The nurse is responsible for:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse's responsibility in this scenario is to instruct the patient about the diagnostic test ordered by the physician. This includes explaining the purpose of the test, any necessary preparations, and what to expect. The nurse is not responsible for writing the order, as this is the physician's role. Additionally, providing breakfast is not directly related to the platelet count test. Therefore, the correct answer is A, which aligns with the nurse's role in educating and supporting the patient regarding the test.
A client who wears glasses is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is essential for the nurse to store the client's glasses in a labeled case to ensure they are kept safe and protected from damage. Storing them in a case helps prevent scratches, breakage, or misplacement. This practice promotes proper eyewear hygiene and ensures the client has their glasses readily available when needed. Cleaning the glasses with hot water or a paper towel can potentially damage the lenses or frames. Storing the glasses on the bedside table increases the risk of misplacement or damage.
A patient requires augmentation of labor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to the use of oxytocin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Postterm pregnancy with oligohydramnios is a contraindication for the use of oxytocin due to the increased risk of uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. Oxytocin can further stress the fetus in this scenario, potentially leading to adverse outcomes. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to recognize this contraindication to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby during labor.
A client has experienced a right-hemispheric stroke. Which of the following is not an expected finding?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a right-hemispheric stroke, the expected findings include left-sided hemiplegia (Choice B), loss of depth perception (Choice C), and impulse control difficulty (Choice A). Aphasia (Choice D) is typically associated with left-hemispheric strokes. Therefore, aphasia is not an expected finding in a client who has experienced a right-hemispheric stroke.
When assessing a client with a history of asthma, which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a risk for asthma?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a client with a history of asthma, the nurse should identify environmental allergies as a risk factor for asthma. Environmental allergens such as pollen, dust mites, mold, and pet dander can trigger asthma symptoms and exacerbate the condition. Gender, alcohol consumption, and other factors may not directly contribute to the development or exacerbation of asthma.
If a healthcare provider administers an injection to a patient who refuses, they have committed:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a healthcare provider administers treatment, such as an injection, against a patient's refusal or will, it constitutes assault and battery. Assault refers to the intentional act that causes a person to fear that they will be touched without consent, while battery involves the actual harmful or offensive contact. In this scenario, administering the injection without the patient's consent is both an assault (causing fear of unwanted contact) and a battery (unwanted physical contact). Therefore, the correct answer is 'Assault and battery.' Negligence refers to a failure to exercise the appropriate level of care expected in a situation, while malpractice involves professional negligence or misconduct.
All of the following statements are true about donning sterile gloves except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When donning sterile gloves, it is essential to maintain sterility. The correct way to don sterile gloves includes grasping the outside of the cuff to put on the first glove and inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff outside the glove to put on the second glove. Adjustments should be made by sliding the fingers under the sterile cuff. It is crucial to remember that once the inside of the glove is touched during the donning process, it is no longer considered sterile.
A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse on the purpose of administering vecuronium to a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Vecuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is used to facilitate ventilation by inducing muscle paralysis, which can help improve oxygenation in patients with ARDS. It does not treat infection, decrease inflammation, or reduce anxiety. Understanding the purpose of vecuronium administration is crucial for providing safe and effective care to patients with respiratory distress.
A client reports that the medication the nurse is administering appears different than what they take at home. Which of the following responses should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client reports that the medication appears different than what they take at home, it is crucial for the nurse to ensure the safety and accuracy of the medication being administered. The most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to call the pharmacist to verify the medication, dosage, and any potential changes. This proactive step helps prevent medication errors and ensures the client's safety and well-being.
Prior to a thoracentesis, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Positioning the client in an upright position, leaning over the bedside table helps to facilitate access to the thoracic cavity during the thoracentesis procedure. This position allows for easier identification and access to the insertion site. Explaining the procedure to the client is important, but positioning is the priority. Obtaining ABGs is not directly related to the thoracentesis procedure. Administering benzocaine spray is not a standard practice before a thoracentesis.
Which of the following statements about chest X-rays is false?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because there are contraindications for chest X-rays, such as pregnancy or concerns about radiation exposure. Patients may need to remove jewelry and metallic objects to prevent interference with the imaging. While a signed consent is typically not required for a routine chest X-ray, there are specific situations where consent may be necessary. It is essential for patients to follow fasting instructions before certain types of chest X-rays to obtain accurate results.
A new head nurse on a unit is distressed about the poor staffing on the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift. What should she do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the new head nurse should discuss the problem with her supervisor. This is the most appropriate action as the supervisor is in a position to address staffing concerns effectively and make necessary changes. Complaining to fellow nurses may not lead to a solution, waiting may exacerbate the issue, and demanding staff rotation without proper discussion is not a collaborative approach to resolving the problem.
Which natural body defense plays an active role in preventing infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Body hair plays an active role in preventing infection by acting as a filter to block pathogens. It helps to prevent harmful substances from entering the body through the skin, providing a physical barrier against potential infections.
A healthcare professional is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the apical pulse in newborns is important to evaluate their cardiac function. The normal heart rate for a newborn is typically between 100-160 beats per minute. Auscultating the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds allows for an accurate assessment of the newborn's heart rate. This is a crucial component of the newborn assessment to ensure the baby's cardiovascular system is functioning within the expected range.
A healthcare provider is performing a gastric lavage for a client who has upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a gastric lavage procedure for upper gastrointestinal bleeding, inserting a large-bore NG tube is essential to effectively remove gastric contents and blood. This tube allows for efficient irrigation and suction, aiding in the removal of harmful substances from the stomach. Instilling a large volume of solution or using a cold irrigation solution can lead to complications such as fluid overload or hypothermia. Instructing the client to lie on their right side is not directly related to the gastric lavage procedure.
What is the most common psychogenic disorder among elderly individuals?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Depression is the most common psychogenic disorder among elderly individuals. It can manifest as persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest in activities that were once enjoyed. Elderly individuals may also experience changes in appetite, sleep disturbances, and difficulty concentrating. Detecting and addressing depression in the elderly is crucial for their overall well-being and quality of life.
A nurse manager is developing a protocol for an urgent care clinic that often cares for clients who do not speak the same language as clinical staff. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In situations where there is a language barrier between healthcare providers and patients, it is essential to ensure accurate communication. Using professional interpreter services is the most appropriate choice to ensure clear and precise communication. Relying on the client's children for interpretation may not guarantee accurate or confidential communication. Asking the nurse to interpret can lead to miscommunication or misunderstanding of important medical information. Providing translation services for a nominal fee to clients may not always be feasible or culturally appropriate. Regularly evaluating the client's understanding helps ensure that information is effectively communicated and comprehended.
When applying Nagele's rule, a healthcare professional is estimating a client's expected date of delivery based on their last menstrual period, which began on April 12th. What date should the healthcare professional determine to be the client's expected delivery date? (Use mmdd format.)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the expected delivery date using Nagele's rule, begin by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period (April 12th), which results in January 12th. Then, add 7 days. Therefore, the expected delivery date would be January 19th (0119). This calculation method helps healthcare professionals estimate the client's due date.
Which of the following conditions may necessitate fluid restriction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Renal failure often necessitates fluid restriction to prevent fluid overload. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter and excrete excess fluids, leading to fluid accumulation in the body. Restricting fluid intake helps manage this condition by preventing further fluid buildup and complications such as edema and electrolyte imbalances.
What is the correct sequence for assessing the abdomen?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct sequence for assessing the abdomen is auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Auscultation allows the healthcare provider to listen for bowel sounds, followed by percussion to assess for areas of tenderness or abnormal distention, and finally palpation to feel for masses or organ enlargement. This sequence ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of the abdomen.
According to the principles of standard precautions, when should gloves be worn by healthcare providers?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Gloves should be worn when providing oral hygiene as it involves potential exposure to bodily fluids, aligning with the standard precautions to prevent the transmission of infections. Providing a back massage, feeding a client, and providing hair care do not typically involve direct exposure to bodily fluids, so wearing gloves is not necessary in these scenarios according to standard precautions.
Which deficiency is most commonly seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Thiamine deficiency, also known as Vitamin B1 deficiency, is the most common vitamin deficiency seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Chronic alcohol consumption can lead to decreased thiamine absorption and utilization, as well as poor dietary intake. Thiamine deficiency can result in serious neurological complications, such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, making it essential to address thiamine supplementation in individuals with alcohol use disorder.
A client complains of difficulty swallowing when the nurse tries to administer capsule medication. Which of the following measures should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client has difficulty swallowing capsule medication, the nurse should check the availability of a liquid preparation. This is a safer approach and ensures that the medication's integrity is maintained, providing an alternative form that is easier for the client to take. Dissolving the capsule in water (choice A) may alter the medication's effectiveness, breaking the capsule and mixing the contents with applesauce (choice B) is not recommended as it may cause an unpleasant taste, and crushing the capsule and placing it under the tongue (choice D) can be unsafe and affect the medication's absorption.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with rheumatoid arthritis, an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a common finding and indicates inflammation in the body. A high ESR value suggests active disease activity and potential joint damage. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report an ESR of 75 mm/hr to the provider for further evaluation and management of the client's rheumatoid arthritis.
When caring for a client in the advanced stage of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), which of the following referrals is the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the advanced stage of ALS, speech and swallowing difficulties become significant. As a result, the priority referral for the nurse would be a speech-language pathologist. This professional can assist in managing communication challenges and provide strategies to address swallowing issues, ensuring the client's safety and quality of life.
While caring for a client in a clinic, a healthcare professional learns that the client woke up not recognizing their partner, surroundings, has chills, and chest pain worsening upon inspiration. What should be the healthcare professional's priority action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority action for the healthcare professional is to obtain the client's baseline vital signs and oxygen saturation. This will provide essential information on the client's current physiological status and help guide further assessment and intervention. Assessing the vital signs and oxygen saturation can help identify any immediate concerns like hypoxia or sepsis, which require prompt attention. While obtaining a complete history and considering a pneumococcal vaccine may be important in the overall care of the client, assessing the vital signs and oxygen saturation takes precedence to address the client's immediate physiological needs.
What should be done in order to prevent contamination of the environment when making a bed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct practice to prevent contamination of the environment when making a bed is to avoid flinging soiled linens. Flinging soiled linens can spread contaminants in the environment, leading to potential health risks. By handling soiled linens properly and avoiding flinging them, the risk of contamination is minimized, ensuring a safer and cleaner environment. Stripping all linens at the same time (choice B) may not necessarily prevent contamination if the soiled linens are flung around. Finishing both sides at the same time (choice C) is unrelated to preventing contamination. Embracing soiled linen (choice D) is not hygienic and can lead to spreading contaminants.
How can preserving skin integrity impact the circular chain of infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Preserving skin integrity plays a key role in breaking the chain of infection by eliminating the portal of entry for pathogens. When the skin is intact, it acts as a natural barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the body. By maintaining skin integrity through proper hygiene and wound care, the risk of infection is significantly reduced, disrupting the cycle of infection transmission.
How many ounces are in 1 cup?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
1 cup is equivalent to 8 ounces. This conversion is commonly used in cooking and baking recipes, where precise measurements are crucial for the successful outcome of dishes. Knowing this conversion helps ensure that ingredients are accurately measured and the recipe turns out as intended. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct conversion between cups and ounces. 80, 800, and 8000 ounces are significantly higher quantities than what is found in 1 cup, which is 8 ounces.
The client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of phenelzine. The nurse should instruct the client that it is not safe to eat which of the following foods while taking this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Avocados contain high levels of tyramine, which can cause a hypertensive crisis when consumed with phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). It is essential for clients taking MAOIs to avoid foods rich in tyramine to prevent dangerous interactions and potential health risks.
A healthcare professional realizes that the wrong medication has been administered to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a situation where the wrong medication has been administered to a client, the immediate priority is to assess and monitor the client's vital signs to identify any adverse effects of the incorrect medication. This action takes precedence over notifying the provider, reporting the incident, or filling out an incident report. Monitoring vital signs allows for timely recognition and intervention if the client experiences any negative reactions to the wrong medication, ensuring their safety and well-being.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an autologous blood product to a client. Which of the following actions should the professional take to identify the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When preparing to administer an autologous blood product, it is crucial to correctly identify the client to prevent errors. Matching the client's blood type with the type and cross-match specimens ensures that the blood product is intended for the correct recipient. This step helps in verifying the patient's identity and avoiding any transfusion-related complications. Confirming the blood type through type and cross-matching is a standard practice to ensure patient safety during blood transfusions.
What is the transparent membrane that focuses the light entering the eyes onto the retina?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is the lens. The lens is a transparent structure in the eye that helps to focus light onto the retina, which is essential for clear vision. The cornea and sclera are also important parts of the eye, but the lens specifically plays a crucial role in focusing light onto the retina. The sclera is the white outer layer of the eye that helps maintain the shape of the eye, while the cornea is the clear outer covering of the eye that helps to refract light into the eye.
How many milliliters are equal to 20 cc?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
1 cc (cubic centimeter) is equal to 1 ml. Therefore, 20 cc is equal to 20 ml. To convert between cubic centimeters (cc) and milliliters (ml), the values are equivalent since they both measure volume in the metric system. Choice A (2) is incorrect as it does not account for the direct conversion between cc and ml. Choice C (2000) and choice D (20000) are incorrect as they represent conversions based on a misunderstanding of the relationship between cc and ml.
A healthcare provider is caring for a client following a thoracentesis. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider NOT recognize as risks for complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After a thoracentesis, some expected complications include dyspnea, fever, and hypotension. Localized bloody drainage on the dressing is a common and expected finding post-thoracentesis due to the procedure's nature of puncturing the chest wall. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not consider this finding as a risk for complications.
The physician orders the administration of high-humidity oxygen by face mask and placement of the patient in a high Fowler's position. After assessing Mrs. Paul, the nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis: Impaired gas exchange related to increased secretions. Which of the following nursing interventions has the greatest potential for improving this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chest physiotherapy is the most effective intervention in cases of impaired gas exchange related to increased secretions. This technique helps mobilize and clear secretions from the airways, thereby improving gas exchange in the lungs. Placing a humidifier or administering oxygen by high humidity face mask may provide moisture but may not directly address the clearance of secretions. Encouraging increased fluid intake can help with hydration but may not address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange due to secretions.
When providing mouth care to an unconscious client, what is the best position for the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best position for an unconscious client when providing mouth care is the side-lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration by allowing fluids to drain out of the mouth easily, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing the client in a side-lying position also promotes comfort and safety during the procedure. The other options are not ideal for mouth care in an unconscious client: Fowler's position may increase the risk of aspiration, the supine position can lead to aspiration as well, and Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential adverse effects on blood circulation and increased intracranial pressure.
The healthcare provider orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To determine the flow rate in drops per minute, multiply the ordered volume per hour by the drop factor (100 ml/hour x 15 gtt/ml = 1500 gtt/hour). Then, divide the result by 60 minutes to convert it to drops per minute (1500 gtt/hour ÷ 60 minutes = 25 gtt/minute). Therefore, the correct answer is 25 gtt/minute.
All of the following interventions are correct when using the Z-track method of drug injection except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When using the Z-track method of drug injection, it is important to prepare the injection site with alcohol to ensure cleanliness, use a needle that is at least 1” long to reach the muscle tissue, and aspirate for blood before injection to verify correct needle placement. However, rubbing the site vigorously after the injection is not recommended as it can cause medication to leak into subcutaneous tissue, compromising the medication's intended absorption and efficacy.
The physician orders the administration of high-humidity oxygen by face mask and placement of the patient in a high Fowler's position. After assessing Mrs. Paul, the nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis: Impaired gas exchange related to increased secretions. Which of the following nursing interventions has the greatest potential for improving this situation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chest physiotherapy is the most effective intervention in cases of impaired gas exchange related to increased secretions. This technique helps mobilize and clear secretions from the airways, thereby improving gas exchange in the lungs. Placing a humidifier or administering oxygen by high humidity face mask may provide moisture but may not directly address the clearance of secretions. Encouraging increased fluid intake can help with hydration but may not address the underlying issue of impaired gas exchange due to secretions.
When providing mouth care to an unconscious client, what is the best position for the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best position for an unconscious client when providing mouth care is the side-lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration by allowing fluids to drain out of the mouth easily, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Placing the client in a side-lying position also promotes comfort and safety during the procedure. The other options are not ideal for mouth care in an unconscious client: Fowler's position may increase the risk of aspiration, the supine position can lead to aspiration as well, and Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential adverse effects on blood circulation and increased intracranial pressure.
The healthcare provider orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt = 1 ml?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To determine the flow rate in drops per minute, multiply the ordered volume per hour by the drop factor (100 ml/hour x 15 gtt/ml = 1500 gtt/hour). Then, divide the result by 60 minutes to convert it to drops per minute (1500 gtt/hour ÷ 60 minutes = 25 gtt/minute). Therefore, the correct answer is 25 gtt/minute.
All of the following interventions are correct when using the Z-track method of drug injection except:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When using the Z-track method of drug injection, it is important to prepare the injection site with alcohol to ensure cleanliness, use a needle that is at least 1" long to reach the muscle tissue, and aspirate for blood before injection to verify correct needle placement. However, rubbing the site vigorously after the injection is not recommended as it can cause medication to leak into subcutaneous tissue, compromising the medication's intended absorption and efficacy.
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