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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin takes several days to reach a therapeutic level and exert its full anticoagulant effect. During this time, the IV heparin is continued to prevent clotting until the warfarin is effective. Both medications are used together temporarily for this reason. Discontinuing heparin prematurely can increase the risk of clot formation. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that the IV heparin will be continued until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients receiving antimicrobial therapy. Which of the following clients should the professional plan to monitor for manifestations of antibiotic toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An older adult client with prostatitis who is receiving antibiotics should be monitored for toxicity due to age-related reductions in medication metabolism and excretion. Older adults are more susceptible to antibiotic toxicity, making them a high-risk group for adverse effects.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking sucralfate is 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to effectively coat the stomach lining and provide a protective barrier against gastric acid, helping to prevent ulcers.

Similar Questions

When administering IV Amphotericin B to a client with a systemic fungal infection, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?
A client has a new prescription for Somatropin to stimulate growth. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)
A client has a new prescription for Simvastatin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
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