ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication undiluted.
- B. Dilute the medication with normal saline.
- C. Administer the medication through a central line.
- D. Administer the medication slowly over 2 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication rapidly over 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client for hypertension during infusion.
- C. Administer a test dose before the full dose.
- D. Monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.
3. A client has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin to treat angina. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take this medication only when experiencing chest pain.
- B. Store the medication in a cool, dry place.
- C. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
- D. Do not cut the patch regardless of your blood pressure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When using Nitroglycerin patches to treat angina, it is crucial to apply the patch to a different site each time. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and ensures proper absorption of the medication, optimizing its effectiveness in managing angina symptoms.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes Warfarin daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Potassium level
- B. INR
- C. BUN
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most important lab value to monitor in a client taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.
5. What is a severe adverse effect of iron supplementation?
- A. Seizures
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Edema
- D. Serotonin syndrome
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A severe adverse effect of iron supplementation is seizures. Iron toxicity can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, bloody diarrhea, lethargy, and in severe cases, seizures. It is important for individuals taking iron supplements to follow recommended dosages to prevent adverse effects.
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