ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:
- A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
- B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
- C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
- D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.
2. How should rifampin most likely be administered to a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis?
- A. Orally, with food
- B. Orally, on an empty stomach
- C. Intramuscularly
- D. Intravenously, as a bolus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rifampin is typically administered orally, and it is recommended to be taken with food to enhance its absorption and reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Administering rifampin intramuscularly or intravenously is not the standard route of administration for this medication used in tuberculosis treatment.
3. When starting on oral contraceptives, what important information should the nurse provide regarding the timing of the medication?
- A. Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives can be taken at any time of day as long as the schedule is consistent.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken with food to enhance absorption.
- D. Oral contraceptives can be skipped occasionally without significant consequences.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When starting on oral contraceptives, it is crucial to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because consistency in timing is essential for optimal efficacy. Choice C is inaccurate as oral contraceptives do not need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses or skipping oral contraceptives can reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
4. Which scenario would be an example of a child born with congenital insensitivity to pain?
- A. A child who does not cry when injured and fails to respond to painful stimuli.
- B. A child who cries excessively and has a heightened response to pain.
- C. A child who experiences pain but has difficulty expressing it.
- D. A child who is sensitive to minor stimuli but has a delayed response to severe pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct scenario depicting a child with congenital insensitivity to pain is when the child does not cry when injured and fails to respond to painful stimuli. This condition is characterized by the inability to feel and react to pain, resulting in a lack of typical responses such as crying or withdrawal when hurt. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a child with heightened pain sensitivity, opposite to the insensitivity seen in the condition. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests the child feels pain but struggles to communicate it, which is not the case with congenital insensitivity to pain. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a child who is sensitive to minor stimuli and has delayed responses to severe pain, which is not indicative of congenital insensitivity to pain.
5. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?
- A. IgG
- B. IgA
- C. IgM
- D. IgD
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.
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