ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What therapeutic effect is expected from this medication?
- A. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms
- B. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction
- C. Improvement in erectile function
- D. Relief of pain associated with BPH
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms. Finasteride works by reducing the size of the prostate gland, which in turn helps alleviate urinary symptoms such as frequency, urgency, weak stream, and incomplete emptying of the bladder. Choice B is incorrect as while finasteride can improve urine flow indirectly by reducing prostate size, it does not directly increase urine flow. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride is not intended to improve erectile function. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does not primarily provide relief from pain associated with BPH.
2. A 37-year-old woman has a 10 pack-year smoking history and has been using oral contraceptives for the past 2 years. The nurse should plan health education interventions knowing that this patient faces an increased risk of
- A. osteoporosis.
- B. dementia.
- C. myocardial infarction.
- D. deep vein thrombosis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: myocardial infarction. Women aged 35 and older who smoke, especially with a history of 10 pack-years like in this case, face an increased risk of cardiovascular disorders, including myocardial infarction, when using oral contraceptives. Choice A, osteoporosis, is incorrect because smoking and oral contraceptives do not significantly increase the risk of osteoporosis. Choice B, dementia, is not directly associated with smoking, oral contraceptives, or their combination. Choice D, deep vein thrombosis, is a risk associated with oral contraceptives, especially in combination with smoking, but the highest increased risk in this case is for myocardial infarction.
3. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?
- A. The patient's C-reactive protein levels
- B. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. The patient's viral load
- D. The patient's CD4 count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.
4. A patient being treated for tuberculosis is determined to be drug resistant. Which of the following medications will the patient be resistant to in the treatment of tuberculosis?
- A. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin
- B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
- C. Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) and doxapram (Dopram)
- D. Propranolol (Inderal) and sotalol (Betapace)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the treatment of tuberculosis, drug resistance commonly develops against medications like Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. These two drugs are key components of the standard anti-tuberculosis treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated medications that are not used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Carbamazepine and phenytoin are anticonvulsants, dextroamphetamine is a stimulant, and propranolol and sotalol are used for cardiovascular conditions.
5. A patient is prescribed testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of this medication?
- A. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms.
- B. Apply the gel to the face and neck.
- C. Apply the gel to the genitals for maximum absorption.
- D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the testosterone gel to the chest or upper arms. This is recommended to minimize the risk of unintentional transfer of the medication to others, especially women and children, through skin contact. Applying the gel to the face, neck, or genitals is not advised as it can lead to unintended exposure to others. Additionally, applying the gel to the scalp or back is not appropriate as these areas are not indicated for absorption of testosterone.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99