ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. A patient is being treated with amphotericin B. Which of the following statements indicates that the patient has understood the patient teaching?
- A. “The medication may cause diabetes.”
- B. “The medication will cause liver necrosis.”
- C. “The medication may cause kidney damage.”
- D. “The medication will cause pancreatitis.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The medication may cause kidney damage.' Amphotericin B is known for its potential to cause nephrotoxicity, which can manifest as kidney damage. It is crucial for the patient to be aware of this possible adverse effect. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because amphotericin B is not typically associated with causing diabetes, liver necrosis, or pancreatitis. Therefore, these statements do not reflect an accurate understanding of the medication's side effects.
2. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?
- A. The patient's C-reactive protein levels
- B. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. The patient's viral load
- D. The patient's CD4 count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.
3. A 35-year-old male has enlarged lymph nodes in the neck and a mediastinal mass. He was diagnosed with Hodgkin lymphoma. Which of the following abnormal cells would the nurse expect to find with this disease?
- A. Merkel cell
- B. Schwann cell
- C. Reed-Sternberg cell
- D. Kupffer cell
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma. These large abnormal cells have a bi-lobed or multi-lobed nucleus and are essential for diagnosing Hodgkin lymphoma through histological examination. Merkel cells are associated with Merkel cell carcinoma, Schwann cells are related to nerve sheaths, and Kupffer cells are liver macrophages. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect for Hodgkin lymphoma.
4. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?
- A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
- B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
- C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
- D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.
5. A patient being treated for tuberculosis is determined to be drug resistant. Which of the following medications will the patient be resistant to in the treatment of tuberculosis?
- A. Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin
- B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
- C. Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) and doxapram (Dopram)
- D. Propranolol (Inderal) and sotalol (Betapace)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the treatment of tuberculosis, drug resistance commonly develops against medications like Isoniazid (INH) and rifampin. These two drugs are key components of the standard anti-tuberculosis treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are unrelated medications that are not used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Carbamazepine and phenytoin are anticonvulsants, dextroamphetamine is a stimulant, and propranolol and sotalol are used for cardiovascular conditions.
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