ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam
1. Why is the administration of benzene hexachloride (Lindane) for the treatment of scabies applied in small quantities?
- A. Excessive applications will lead to central nervous system toxicity.
- B. Excessive applications will cause irritation, rash, and inflammation.
- C. Excessive applications will cause headaches, dizziness, and diarrhea.
- D. Excessive applications will lead to anorexia and cachexia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The rationale for instructing the patient to apply benzene hexachloride (Lindane) in small quantities for scabies treatment is that excessive applications can lead to central nervous system toxicity. Lindane is a neurotoxin, and overuse or incorrect application can result in adverse effects on the central nervous system, such as seizures, dizziness, and even death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific toxic effects associated with Lindane, which primarily affects the central nervous system rather than causing skin irritation, gastrointestinal symptoms, or metabolic issues.
2. A 52-year-old has made an appointment with his primary care provider and has reluctantly admitted that his primary health concern is erectile dysfunction (ED). He describes the problem as increasing in severity and consequent distress. Which of the nurse's assessment questions is most likely to address a common cause of ED?
- A. “How would you describe your overall health status?”
- B. “Are you taking any medications for high blood pressure?”
- C. “How has this issue been impacting your relationship?”
- D. “Have you experienced any recent injuries?”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the context of erectile dysfunction (ED), medication use is a crucial factor to consider. Many medications, including those used for high blood pressure, can contribute to ED as a side effect. Asking about medication use, particularly for conditions like high blood pressure, can help identify a common cause of ED. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address potential causes related to medication use, making them less likely to reveal a common underlying issue for ED in this case.
3. A 23-year-old pregnant female visits her primary care provider for her final prenatal checkup. The primary care provider determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero. Which of the following would be increased in the fetus at birth?
- A. IgG
- B. IgA
- C. IgM
- D. IgD
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is elevated in a fetus with an in utero infection. IgG is the primary antibody responsible for providing immunity to the fetus and is transferred across the placenta during the third trimester. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and colostrum but not significantly elevated in fetal infections. IgD is involved in the development and maturation of B cells but not typically increased in fetal infections.
4. A 52-year-old male patient is taking finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What patient teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking NSAIDs while on this medication.
- C. Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication.
- D. Women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Finasteride, used for BPH, can be harmful to a developing male fetus. Therefore, women who are or may become pregnant should not handle crushed or broken tablets to avoid potential absorption through the skin. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between finasteride and NSAIDs mentioned. Choice C is incorrect as finasteride does not typically cause drowsiness or impair mental alertness.
5. A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urinary frequency and urgency
- B. Decreased prostate size
- C. Increased prostate size
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased prostate size. Finasteride is a medication used to reduce the size of the prostate gland in patients with BPH. By decreasing the size of the prostate, symptoms such as urinary frequency and urgency are improved. Choice A is incorrect as the medication aims to decrease, not increase, urinary symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because the goal of finasteride is to reduce, not increase, the prostate size. Choice D is also incorrect as finasteride is not indicated for lowering blood pressure.
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