Free Obstetrics and Pediatrics practice for ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam (ATI RN). Answer 69 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progre
Which factor will not promote play and playfulness in children?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Directive adults can inhibit spontaneous play and creativity, which are essential for fostering playfulness in children. When adults are too directive, children may feel constrained and less likely to engage in imaginative and free play. Encouraging independence and allowing children to explore and create their play scenarios can enhance playfulness and creativity.
Which of the following is a key feature of the diagnosis of ASD according to the DSM V?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the DSM V, one of the key diagnostic criteria for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is unusual responses to sensory input. These atypical responses can include hypersensitivity or hyposensitivity to sensory stimuli, such as sound, touch, taste, or smell. These sensory processing differences are important in the diagnosis of ASD because they can significantly impact an individual's daily functioning and behavior. Social isolation and repetitive behaviors are associated features of ASD but are not the key diagnostic criteria according to the DSM V. Delayed motor development may be observed in some individuals with ASD, but it is not a key feature used for diagnosis in the DSM V.
A child is being assessed for Kawasaki disease. Which of the following findings should be expected?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In Kawasaki disease, a child typically presents with a fever that is unresponsive to antipyretics because the disease is characterized by systemic inflammation. The persistent fever is a hallmark feature of the disease and can last for more than five days despite treatment with antipyretics.
The healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to the parent of a school-age child who has celiac disease. The healthcare provider should recommend that the parent offer which of the following foods to the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Celiac disease requires a lifelong gluten-free diet. Foods containing gluten such as wheat, barley, and rye should be avoided. Rice pudding is a safe option as it does not contain gluten, making it a suitable choice for a child with celiac disease.
In which frame of reference do activities involve responses to movement, balance, weight bearing, and tactile activities?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ayres' sensory integration focuses on activities that target responses to movement, balance, weight bearing, and tactile stimuli to improve sensory processing and integration. This approach aims to address sensory challenges through structured activities to enhance overall function and participation. Motor control/motor learning (Choice A) deals with the control and coordination of voluntary movements. Neurodevelopmental treatment (Choice C) focuses on facilitating normal movement patterns and postural control. Developmental (Choice D) refers to the natural sequence of growth and development in children.
Which assessment finding for a 4-month-old infant would require further action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The posterior fontanel should be closed by 4 months of age. An open posterior fontanel at this age may indicate a delay in normal closure, which could be a cause for concern and require further evaluation by the healthcare provider to ensure proper development and growth. Choices B, C, and D are typical developmental milestones for a 4-month-old infant and do not raise immediate concerns requiring further action by the nurse.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system plays an important role in maintaining blood pressure. Which compound in this system is most powerful at raising blood pressure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Angiotensin II is the most potent compound in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system for raising blood pressure. It acts as a powerful vasoconstrictor, leading to increased systemic vascular resistance. Angiotensin II is formed from angiotensin I through the action of the angiotensin-converting enzyme. While renin initiates the cascade by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, it is angiotensin II that exerts the strongest pressor effect.
Which assessment finding, after the dialysate is drained during peritoneal dialysis for a child experiencing acute renal failure, would warrant further action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A lower volume of drained dialysate compared to the volume infused suggests a possible obstruction or malfunction in the dialysis process. This finding could compromise the effectiveness of the treatment and needs prompt assessment and intervention by the nurse to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of complications during peritoneal dialysis. The clarity of the dialysate, the child's behavior, and the consistency of vital signs are not alarming findings that would require immediate action by the nurse.
A nurse is planning care to address nutritional needs for a preschooler with cystic fibrosis. Which interventions should the nurse include in plans?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Increasing fat content in the diet is essential for meeting the high energy needs of a child with cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis impairs the absorption of nutrients, particularly fats, so increasing the fat content in the child's diet to 40% of total calories helps ensure adequate caloric intake. This intervention can help maintain the child's nutritional status and support growth and development.
A toddler has minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) and 3+ pitting edema. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In managing minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) in children with pitting edema, corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment. Corticosteroids help reduce inflammation and decrease proteinuria, addressing the underlying cause of MCNS. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize administering the prescribed corticosteroids to the toddler as part of the plan of care.
What is the most appropriate nursing consideration for a patient who is prescribed verapamil and digoxin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient is prescribed verapamil and digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of digoxin toxicity due to the potential interaction between these medications. Verapamil can elevate digoxin blood serum levels, increasing the risk of toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and visual changes. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing consideration is to notify the healthcare provider of these symptoms. Restricting intake of oral fluids and high-fiber foods is not a specific consideration related to this medication combination. Before administering digoxin, it is essential to take an apical pulse for a full minute, not just 30 seconds, to ensure accuracy. Additionally, holding the medications if the heart rate exceeds 110 bpm is not a typical response to the combination of verapamil and digoxin, which can cause bradycardia rather than tachycardia.
The nurse is providing care for a pediatric client in the emergency department (ED) with a diagnosis of decreased level of consciousness (LOC) secondary to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which healthcare provider order should the nurse question?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a pediatric client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and decreased level of consciousness (LOC), passive range-of-motion exercises to promote hip flexion should be questioned as they can potentially increase intracranial pressure. This action may not be safe for the client's condition. The other options are appropriate interventions for managing a pediatric client with increased ICP and decreased LOC.
When preparing an adolescent for a lumbar puncture, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse when preparing an adolescent for a lumbar puncture is to apply topical analgesic cream to the site one hour before the procedure. This helps reduce pain experienced during the lumbar puncture, making the procedure more comfortable for the adolescent. Placing a cardiac monitor on the adolescent is not necessary for a lumbar puncture. Keeping the adolescent in a semi-Fowler's position for 4 hours following the procedure is not a standard practice after a lumbar puncture. Restricting fluids for 2 hours following the procedure is not a requirement for a lumbar puncture preparation.
A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia is to assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours. This frequent assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. Monitoring every 4 hours allows for early detection of any issues, enabling timely intervention and prevention of potential complications. Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours (choice B) is not as immediate or essential for postoperative care. Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours (choice C) may not be necessary if the patient is not ambulatory yet. Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the priority in the immediate postoperative period compared to assessing neurovascular status.
In the morning, a healthcare professional receives change-of-shift report on four pediatric clients, each of whom has some form of fluid-volume excess. Which of the children should the healthcare professional see first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion should be seen first. Tachypnea indicates an increased respiratory rate, a sign of possible respiratory distress. Pulmonary congestion suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, posing a serious risk to respiratory function. Immediate attention is crucial in this case. Choice B is incorrect as hepatomegaly alone does not indicate an acute issue requiring immediate attention. Choices C and D, while showing signs of fluid-volume excess, do not present the same level of respiratory compromise as tachypnea and pulmonary congestion, making them lower priority.
The nurse is reviewing the home medication list with the patient. The nurse recognizes that hydrochlorothiazide is used primarily for which condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hydrochlorothiazide is primarily indicated for hypertension (HTN). Thiazides like hydrochlorothiazide are commonly the first-line treatment for hypertension. While hydrochlorothiazide can be used for edema, diabetes insipidus, and postmenopausal osteoporosis to some extent, its main use and efficacy lie in managing hypertension.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 15-month-old child. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of this vaccine?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Taking antibiotics is a contraindication to receiving the MMR vaccine because antibiotics can potentially interfere with the effectiveness of the vaccine. It is essential to avoid administering the MMR vaccine while the child is on antibiotics to ensure the vaccine provides the intended protection.
A teacher states to the school nurse, 'I have a student who will often just stare at me for 15 seconds after asking a question; then the student blinks and asks me to repeat the question. Should I be concerned?' Which should the nurse include in the response to the teacher?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Staring spells that end abruptly and are followed by normal activity are indicative of absence seizures. In absence seizures, a child may exhibit staring spells, brief loss of awareness, and lack of responsiveness, which can last for a few seconds. Choice A is incorrect because the behavior described is not associated with having a crush. Choice B is incorrect as increased intracranial pressure usually presents with other symptoms. Choice C is less likely as a head injury would typically manifest with additional signs beyond just staring and blinking.
What is an appropriate intervention for the edematous child with reduced mobility related to nephrotic syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Changing the child's position frequently is essential for preventing respiratory tract infections and reducing pressure on delicate skin, which are common risks for edematous children with reduced mobility due to nephrotic syndrome. This intervention helps promote circulation and prevents complications associated with prolonged immobility.
During an assessment, an infant is suspected to have intussusception. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Intussusception is a condition where one segment of the intestine telescopes into another, causing obstruction. The classic presentation includes currant jelly stools, which are a mixture of blood and mucus due to the sloughing of the intestinal mucosa. This finding is a result of the compromised blood supply to the affected area and is a key characteristic associated with intussusception.
A parent of a preschooler is being taught by a nurse about administering ear drops. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct administration of ear drops includes massaging the child's ear after administering the drops to facilitate proper absorption of the medication. This action helps ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A describes incorrect positioning of the ear canal, choice B mentions incorrect storage of the ear drops, and choice C describes an incorrect technique for administering ear drops.
When a patient is taking glucocorticoids and digoxin, which electrolyte should the nurse prioritize monitoring?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should primarily monitor potassium levels in a patient taking glucocorticoids and digoxin. Glucocorticoids can lead to potassium loss, potentially increasing the risk of digoxin toxicity. Additionally, glucocorticoids may worsen hypokalemia induced by diuretics like thiazides and loops. While calcium, magnesium, and sodium are important electrolytes to monitor in various clinical situations, they are not the priority in this specific scenario of a patient on glucocorticoids and digoxin.
Which statement is not part of the developmental care approach?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The developmental care approach emphasizes creating an environment that supports the infant's developmental needs, including family-centered care, a healing environment, and promoting protected sleep. Payment scale considerations are not a component of developmental care.
When teaching a school-age child and the parent how to administer insulin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is essential to give insulin at room temperature to prevent discomfort during administration. Cold insulin can cause stinging and pain, which can be avoided by allowing the insulin to reach room temperature before administration. Storing insulin in the refrigerator is correct for long-term storage, but it should be brought to room temperature before use. Rotating injection sites is important to prevent lipohypertrophy, a condition characterized by fatty lumps that can develop if injections are consistently given in the same area. Administering insulin within 30 minutes of a meal is generally recommended to match the insulin peak action with the peak glucose levels after eating, but giving insulin at room temperature is more crucial to ensure comfort and proper absorption.
Difficulties with eating, sleeping, playing, repetitive or difficult behaviors, and paying attention may all be caused in part by which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sensory processing challenges can affect various aspects of a child's daily life, including eating, sleeping, playing, behavior, and attention. These challenges can lead to difficulties in processing sensory information, which may manifest in different behaviors and impact their overall functioning.
When the home health nurse visits the home of a 10-month-old child, she observes the environment for risks of injury to the child. Which observation will the nurse discuss with the mother?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because leaving a filled mop bucket on the floor poses a drowning hazard for a 10-month-old child. Water in the bucket can be a potential drowning risk if the child falls into it. Pan handles turned to the back of the stove prevent accidental spills or burns, which is a safety measure in the kitchen. Filling the bathtub before bringing the baby into the bathroom helps in preventing burns from hot water. Placing the child in a car seat in the middle of the back seat provides safety by minimizing the risk of injury during a car ride, but it is not the most immediate risk to address in the scenario provided.
During a developmental screening, a 4-year-old child is asked to perform a task. Which of the following tasks should the nurse expect the child to perform?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
At 4 years old, children are typically able to draw a circle, which is a developmental milestone for their age. Drawing a stick figure with specific body parts might be beyond their developmental level, identifying right from left hand can be challenging, and tying shoelaces requires more advanced motor skills.
While caring for four different pediatric clients, which child is at the highest risk for dehydration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The 18-month-old child with tachypnea is at the highest risk for dehydration due to increased insensible water loss associated with rapid breathing.
Parents are speaking with the urologist about their son's undescended testicle. Which statement by the child's father causes the nurse to determine he understands the information presented?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because an undescended testicle can reduce fertility. Even after surgical correction (orchiopexy), fertility rates may be reduced, especially when one testis remains undescended. The statement in choice B is incorrect as the testicle should have descended into the scrotum by the time the infant is 4-6 months old. While choice C is true that surgical correction can reduce the risk of testicular tumors, the question focuses on the father's understanding of the information presented, which is better reflected in choice A. Choice D is incorrect because the optimal time for surgical correction of an undescended testicle is typically around 6-18 months of age, not necessarily at the time of diagnosis.
Which type of parenting style is associated with children who rank higher on many measures of social and cognitive development?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Research has shown that a warm, responsive, and positive parenting style is associated with children who rank higher on many measures of social and cognitive development. This style promotes secure attachment, emotional regulation, and overall well-being in children. In contrast, parenting styles characterized by neutrality, rigidity, negativity, or neglect have been linked to poorer outcomes in children's development. Understanding different parenting styles can help professionals tailor interventions to support families effectively and respectfully.
Following a child's return from exploratory surgery due to a gunshot wound to the abdomen, which nursing intervention should be excluded from the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Immediate initiation of oral feedings should be excluded from the plan of care post-abdominal surgery due to the risk of bowel complications like paralytic ileus or anastomotic leak. Starting oral feedings immediately can increase these risks and hinder healing. It is crucial to wait until bowel function returns and the patient shows signs of tolerance before introducing oral feedings. Assessment of the surgical site is necessary to monitor for any signs of infection or complications. Administration of opioid narcotics for pain management is essential for ensuring the patient's comfort post-surgery. Visitation at the bedside provides emotional support and can aid in the patient's recovery. Therefore, the correct answer is to exclude immediate initiation of oral feedings.
A pediatric client is admitted to the emergency department with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) that caused a loss of consciousness. The last set of vital signs showed heart rate 48, blood pressure (BP) 148/74 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 and irregular. What does the nurse suspect based on these data?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The vital signs of bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations indicate increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia (heart rate of 48), hypertension (blood pressure of 148/74 mmHg), and irregular respirations are typical signs of increased intracranial pressure in a pediatric client with a traumatic brain injury and loss of consciousness.
What is the goal of pharmacologic therapy in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Parkinson’s disease results from a decrease in dopaminergic (inhibitory) activity, leaving an imbalance with too much cholinergic (excitatory) activity. With an increase in dopamine, the neurotransmitter activity becomes more balanced, and symptoms are controlled.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parent of a school-age child who has moderate persistent asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should inform the parent that the child will need pulmonary function tests every 12 to 24 months to assess lung function and response to treatment. These tests help evaluate the presence of lung disease, monitor disease progression, and assess the effectiveness of the current therapeutic regimen in managing asthma. Choice A is incorrect as salmeterol is not used for acute wheezing episodes but rather for long-term maintenance. Choice B is incorrect because weight monitoring is not directly related to inhaled corticosteroid therapy for asthma. Choice D is incorrect as peak expiratory flow meter readings should be recorded as instructed, not averaged.
A child is being assessed for acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN), hypertension is a common finding due to fluid retention and decreased kidney function. This condition often presents with hypertension as a result of sodium and water retention, as well as reduced glomerular filtration rate. Hematuria, not diarrhea, is also a common symptom of APSGN due to inflammation and damage to the glomeruli. Polyuria, an increase in urine output, is not a typical finding in APSGN unless severe kidney damage leads to decreased urine concentrating ability.
Which question does not provide information regarding the family's cultural values?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Asking for the child's date of birth is a factual question that does not directly relate to the family's cultural values. Choices A, C, and D delve into aspects that could offer insights into the family's cultural values and beliefs. Question A explores decision-making dynamics within the family, which can be influenced by cultural norms. Question C inquires about daily routines and mealtime rules, which often reflect cultural practices and values. Question D relates to the parents' beliefs about disability, which can be shaped by cultural, religious, or societal perspectives. Therefore, these questions are more likely to provide information about the family's cultural values compared to the child's date of birth.
A healthcare professional is preparing for the delivery of a newborn with a known diaphragmatic hernia defect. Which equipment should the professional have on hand for the delivery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An endotracheal tube is crucial for managing the airway of a newborn with a diaphragmatic hernia. In this condition, there may be respiratory distress due to incomplete development of the diaphragm, allowing abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity and compress the lungs. The endotracheal tube helps in securing the airway and providing respiratory support if needed until definitive treatment can be initiated.
The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.
The nurse is reviewing the prescriber’s orders and notes that omeprazole has been order for a patient admitted with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The nurse should be concerned if this medication is combined with which medication noted on the patient’s record.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For patients who lack risk factors for GI bleeding, combined use of clopidogrel with a PPI, may reduce the effects of clopidogrel without offering any real benefits and thus should be avoided.
During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, what action is crucial for a nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell anemia, maintaining bed rest is crucial to reduce oxygen consumption and alleviate pain. Movement can worsen the crisis by increasing sickling of red blood cells, leading to further tissue damage and pain. Bed rest helps to improve blood flow, reduce pain, and promote healing. Administering meperidine for pain (Choice A) is not recommended due to the risk of normeperidine accumulation and potential neurotoxicity. Applying cold compresses (Choice B) may cause vasoconstriction, worsening the vaso-occlusive crisis. Limiting fluid intake (Choice C) is not appropriate as adequate hydration is essential to prevent dehydration and maintain blood flow.
The nurse is preparing to administer a daily dose of digoxin. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before giving digoxin, the nurse will assess the HR and rhythm. The dosage will be held and the prescriber notified if the HR is below 60 bpm or if the cardiac rhythm has changes. Digoxin can cause bradycardia and electrical changes in the heart.
A healthcare provider is planning care for a child with hyperkalemia. Which manifestation associated with the documented hyperkalemia requires immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In hyperkalemia, cardiac arrhythmias are the most critical and life-threatening manifestation that requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous heart rhythm disturbances, potentially resulting in cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment is essential to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent life-threatening complications. Hyperthermia, respiratory distress, and seizures are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and should be addressed, but cardiac arrhythmias pose the most urgent risk to the patient's life.
The nurse is teaching a patient with cancer about a new prescription for a fentanyl patch, 25mcg/hr. for chronic back pain. Which statement is the most appropriate to include in the teaching plan.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Full analgesic effects can take up to 24 hours to develop with fentanyl patches. Most patches are changed every 72 hours. Has the same adverse effects as other opioids, including respiratory depression. Should avoid exposing the patch to external heat sources, because this may increase toxicity.
A child with a history of seizures arrives in the emergency department (ED) in status epilepticus. Which is the priority nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a child with a history of seizures presents in status epilepticus, the priority nursing action is to maintain a patent airway. This is crucial to ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation. While taking vital signs, establishing an intravenous line, and performing rapid neurologic assessment are important, maintaining a patent airway takes precedence. Hypoxia can lead to serious complications, making airway management the top priority to ensure the child's safety and prevent further deterioration.
Which question provides information regarding a child's community mobility?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B directly assesses the child's community mobility by inquiring about their ability to leave the house and engage in play activities with friends. Community mobility involves the child's independence in social and recreational activities outside the home, making this question crucial for understanding their daily functioning and autonomy.
A patient with Parkinson’s disease who takes levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) comes to the clinic for a semi-annual physical examination. Which question is the most important for that nurse to ask?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patients taking levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) are at increased risk for the psychiatric side effects of levodopa, including visual hallucinations, vivid dreams, nightmares, and paranoid ideation. The other questions are not directly related to problems that are likely to occur with this drug.
Mary is excited to work with the family of a friend with whom she has lost contact. Mary hopes the family will be able to connect her with her friend and is looking forward to hearing about her friend. At the next session, she asks the mother many questions about her friend and they spend a lot of time discussing their home town, etc. Which statement describes this scenario?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, Mary's focus on her own needs and interests by asking the mother about her lost friend and hometown indicates a lack of therapeutic benefit for the child and family. Effective therapy should prioritize the needs and goals of the child and family, not the therapist's personal desires or connections. Therefore, this interaction is not therapeutic as it fails to address the primary purpose of the therapy, which is to benefit the child and family. Choice A is incorrect because while the relationship may not be therapeutic, it does serve a purpose for Mary. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication of a reciprocal caring relationship in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as the focus is primarily on Mary's personal interests, rather than mutual benefit in the therapeutic relationship.
A nurse is teaching a group of parents about preventing childhood obesity. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should instruct parents to limit their child’s TV watching to 1 to 2 hours per day to prevent childhood obesity.
The healthcare provider is providing care to a child who was treated with aspirin during a viral infection. Which clinical manifestations should cause the healthcare provider concern?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and confusion are concerning as they are indicative of Reye's syndrome, a rare but serious condition associated with aspirin use in children during viral illnesses. Reye's syndrome can lead to severe complications, including brain and liver damage, hence prompt recognition and management are crucial.
At what age range is it important to feed a baby in a more upright position and no longer in sidelying?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Feeding a baby in a more upright position and no longer in sidelying is important around 4-6 months of age. At this stage, babies start developing better head and trunk control, which allows them to sit in a more upright position for feeding, promoting safer and more efficient swallowing and digestion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as feeding a baby in a more upright position typically starts around 4-6 months when the baby has gained more control over their head and trunk movements, making it safer and more effective for feeding.
What is the probable cause recognized by the nurse when a 5-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with acute glomerulonephritis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acute glomerulonephritis typically develops 1 to 3 weeks after a streptococcal infection, such as a sore throat, which triggers an allergic-type response that affects the glomeruli's function. This immune response leads to inflammation and damage to the glomeruli, resulting in acute glomerulonephritis.
A 4-year-old child is admitted to the hospital secondary to dehydration. Laboratory tests indicate a high hemoglobin and hematocrit, and the serum sodium is below normal levels. Which condition does the nurse suspect based on the current data?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is hypotonic dehydration. The combination of high hemoglobin and hematocrit with low serum sodium indicates hypotonic dehydration. In this condition, there is an excess of solutes relative to water, leading to higher red blood cell concentration (elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit) and low serum sodium levels.
A child has a brain tumor. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Children with brain tumors commonly experience frequent headaches due to increased intracranial pressure. This pressure can result in pain and discomfort, leading to headaches as a common symptom. Other symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, changes in vision, and behavioral changes, but headaches are a prominent feature in children with brain tumors.
A patient is receiving glucocorticoids for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. The patient complains of having a headache. Which ordered medication should the nurse administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient is already receiving glucocorticoids for rheumatoid arthritis and complains of a headache, it is essential to consider the potential interactions and side effects of additional medications. Aspirin and NSAIDs like ibuprofen and naproxen sodium can increase the risk of gastrointestinal irritation and ulceration when used concurrently with glucocorticoids. Acetaminophen is a safer choice in this scenario for managing the patient's headache without exacerbating the gastrointestinal issues associated with the use of glucocorticoids. Acetaminophen does not have the same gastrointestinal side effects as aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen sodium, making it the most appropriate option for headache relief in this case.
Which clinical manifestation should a nurse monitor for when assessing a pediatric client diagnosed with a basilar skull fracture?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Periorbital ecchymosis, also known as raccoon eyes, is a classic sign of a basilar skull fracture. It presents as bruising around the eyes due to blood collecting in the tissues. Monitoring for periorbital ecchymosis is crucial in assessing a pediatric client with a basilar skull fracture because it can indicate the presence of this serious injury.
The healthcare provider is providing teaching about Social Development to the parents of a preschooler. Which of the following play activities should the provider recommend for the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the preschool age, play activities should promote social, mental, and physical development. Playing dress-up encourages imagination, creativity, and social interaction, making it an ideal play activity for preschoolers.
Which clean-catch urinalysis finding should raise the most concern for a child admitted to an urgent care center to rule out a urinary tract infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A specific gravity of 1.009 is low, indicating diluted urine, which can be concerning in the context of a urinary tract infection. Diluted urine may suggest inadequate concentration due to increased fluid intake or impaired kidney function, which are important considerations in the assessment of a possible UTI.
When planning care for a pediatric client diagnosed with bacterial meningitis, what is the priority nursing diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing diagnosis when caring for a pediatric client with bacterial meningitis is 'Impaired Gas Exchange.' This diagnosis takes precedence due to the potential for respiratory complications associated with the condition. Bacterial meningitis can lead to increased intracranial pressure, compromising the child's ability to ventilate adequately. Therefore, monitoring and addressing any signs of respiratory distress are crucial in the care of these patients.
An 80-year-old patient with a history of renal insufficiency was recently started on cimetidine. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient may be experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: New onset disorientation to time and place. Cimetidine can cause adverse effects on the CNS system, especially in elderly patients with renal or hepatic impairment. This may manifest as confusion, hallucinations, lethargy, restlessness, or seizures. Pain with urination (choice A) is not typically associated with cimetidine use, and HR changes (choice C) are more likely related to other factors. Choice D is not a valid option.
A parent of a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is being taught by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Maintaining a consistent bedtime routine is essential for children with ADHD as it helps in managing their symptoms effectively. Consistency in bedtime routines aids in regulating the child's sleep patterns, promoting better rest, and ultimately improving their behavior and focus during the day.
When planning care for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, which is the priority nursing diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority nursing diagnosis for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula is 'Risk for Aspiration' because of the potential respiratory complications associated with these conditions. The newborn is at a higher risk of aspirating oral or gastric contents due to the abnormal connections between the esophagus and trachea, posing a serious threat to the airway and lungs. Addressing this risk is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and maintain the airway's patency, making it the priority nursing diagnosis in this scenario. 'Ineffective Tissue Perfusion' is not the priority as respiratory compromise takes precedence over perfusion concerns. 'Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern' may be relevant but addressing the risk of aspiration is more critical. 'Acute Pain' is not the priority compared to the life-threatening risk of aspiration.
A parent of an infant with gastroesophageal reflux is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct posture after feedings is crucial for an infant with gastroesophageal reflux to reduce the risk of regurgitation. Placing the infant upright helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus, minimizing symptoms of reflux.
A nurse is teaching a parent of a child who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should instruct the parent to rotate injection sites to prevent tissue damage and improve insulin absorption.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parent of a child who has juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The nurse should instruct the parent to give the child NSAIDs on a regular schedule to maintain therapeutic levels and control pain.
A healthcare provider is assessing a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare provider to report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority finding to report for a child with acute lymphocytic leukemia is petechiae. Petechiae indicate a low platelet count, which increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the healthcare provider should promptly report petechiae to initiate appropriate interventions to prevent bleeding complications.
The healthcare provider is planning care for a patient receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia pump. Which intervention may be required due to a potential adverse effect of this drug?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Morphine can lead to urinary retention and urinary hesitancy. If a patient shows signs of bladder distention or inability to void, the healthcare provider should be notified, and urinary catheterization may be necessary. Administering a cough suppressant or an anti-diarrheal is not typically required to address adverse effects of morphine. Liver function tests (LFTs) are not directly related to the potential adverse effects of morphine on the urinary system.
A child with croup has an increased PCO2, a decreased pH, and a normal HCO3 blood gas value. Which finding does the nurse report to the healthcare provider based on these data?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The blood gas values indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is an increased PCO2, decreased pH, and a normal HCO3 level. This condition requires immediate attention to address the underlying respiratory problem causing the acidosis.
A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.
A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.