Free ATI RN Exit practice for ATI Exit Exam 2024 (ATI RN). Answer 80 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking on Nursing E
A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to place the client in a negative pressure room. This action is necessary to prevent the spread of tuberculosis, as it is transmitted via airborne particles. Placing the client in droplet isolation (choice C) is not sufficient for tuberculosis, as it requires airborne precautions. Wearing a surgical mask (choice B) when entering the client's room may not provide adequate protection against airborne transmission. Placing a surgical mask on the client when transporting them (choice D) does not address the need for environmental controls to contain infectious particles.
A nurse is providing teaching about newborn care to a group of parents. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'You should keep your newborn's head elevated while they sleep.' Keeping the newborn's head elevated while sleeping helps prevent conditions like sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Choice A is incorrect because newborns do not need to be bathed every day; it is recommended to bathe them 2-3 times a week. Choice B is incorrect as heavy blankets can increase the risk of suffocation for newborns. Choice C is incorrect as newborn stools are typically soft and yellow in color, not firm and light brown.
A healthcare provider is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An irregularly shaped mole is a priority finding to report to the provider as it can be indicative of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Melanoma is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Raised nevus, macule, and vesicle are common skin findings that are typically benign and may not require immediate attention. Therefore, the irregularly shaped mole stands out as the priority due to its association with potential malignancy.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect of radiation therapy due to damage to the salivary glands. It is essential for the nurse to monitor for this condition as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort. Fatigue (choice A) is a common side effect of radiation therapy, but in this case, dry mouth is a more specific side effect to monitor for. Hair loss (choice B) is more commonly associated with chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. Nausea (choice C) is also a common side effect of radiation therapy, but dry mouth is a more direct effect of the treatment that the nurse should focus on monitoring.
A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.
A client is being taught about patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which statement should be included in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement to include in the teaching about PCA is that the client can adjust the amount of pain medication they receive by pushing on the keypad. This empowers the client to control their pain management effectively. Choice A is incorrect because PCA systems are programmed to prevent double dosing when the button is pressed multiple times in quick succession. Choice B is incorrect as continuous PCA infusion aims to maintain a steady plasma medication level. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary to push the button before physical activity to ensure maximum pain control; the client should use the PCA as needed for pain relief.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because a blood pressure drop or other signs of morphine overdose should be reported, especially when using a PCA pump. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not indicate an immediate concern related to morphine administration.
A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse on managing hypoglycemia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Consume 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. Consuming 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, helps raise blood glucose levels quickly in cases of hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding carbohydrate-rich foods during hypoglycemia can worsen the condition. Choice C is incorrect as drinking water does not effectively raise blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect as eating a snack before exercising is more related to preventing exercise-induced hypoglycemia, not managing hypoglycemia.
Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.
What is the first action to take when a patient experiences a seizure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The first action to take when a patient experiences a seizure is to protect the patient from injury. This is crucial to prevent harm during the seizure. Administering oxygen, IV fluids, or anti-seizure medication may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but ensuring their safety by removing harmful objects, cushioning their head, and keeping the area clear is the immediate priority. Administering oxygen, IV fluids, or medication would come after ensuring the patient's safety.
What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with chronic kidney disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine. In patients with chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial as it reflects kidney function. This assessment helps healthcare providers in evaluating the progression of the disease and adjusting treatment plans accordingly. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is essential in managing chronic kidney disease, but monitoring serum creatinine takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are also important aspects of managing chronic kidney disease, but they are not the priority assessment compared to monitoring serum creatinine.
A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught by a nurse about managing protein intake. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'You should limit your intake of high-protein foods.' Clients with chronic kidney disease should restrict their intake of high-protein foods to lessen the workload on the kidneys and prevent further kidney damage. Option A is incorrect as increasing intake of high-protein foods can exacerbate the condition. Option C is incorrect as avoiding all protein sources is not advisable, as some proteins are essential for overall health. Option D is incorrect as increasing the intake of animal protein can put more strain on the kidneys due to the metabolites produced during protein breakdown.
How should a healthcare professional handle a patient who is refusing to take a prescribed medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the reasons for refusal is crucial as it allows the healthcare professional to understand the patient's concerns, which can range from fear of side effects to cost issues. By identifying the underlying reasons, the healthcare professional can tailor their approach to address these specific concerns, potentially improving medication adherence. Giving the medication immediately (Choice A) without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to further non-compliance. While documenting refusal (Choice C) is important for legal and tracking purposes, it does not directly address the patient's concerns. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) may be considered after understanding the reasons for refusal, but it is not the initial step in managing medication refusal.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assisting the client to splint the incision with a pillow while coughing is the correct action in this scenario. This intervention helps reduce pain and prevent wound dehiscence, which is the partial or complete separation of the layers of a surgical wound. Monitoring urinary output is important but not the priority at this immediate postoperative stage. Providing a clear liquid diet may be indicated later but is not the most immediate concern. Encouraging ambulation is beneficial for preventing complications like deep vein thrombosis, but splinting the incision is more crucial at this early postoperative period.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Contact your provider if you experience visual changes.' Visual changes, such as blurred or yellow vision, can indicate digoxin toxicity and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin can be taken with antacids. Choice C is incorrect because increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia when taking digoxin. Choice D is incorrect because increased urination is not a common side effect of digoxin.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to ambulate as soon as possible is essential in preventing complications like deep vein thrombosis post knee arthroplasty. While keeping the affected leg elevated and applying ice packs can be beneficial in certain situations, early ambulation takes precedence in this case. Performing range-of-motion exercises hourly may not be necessary and could potentially cause more harm than good if not done correctly or excessively.
A nurse is caring for a client who has Cushing's syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with Cushing's syndrome, the nurse should expect hyperkalemia. Cushing's syndrome is characterized by excess cortisol levels, which can lead to potassium retention and result in hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypotension is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypertension is more common due to the effects of cortisol. Weight gain, rather than weight loss, is a common symptom of Cushing's syndrome. Hypercalcemia is not a typical finding in Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypocalcemia may occur due to increased urinary calcium excretion.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a therapeutic effect of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate a therapeutic effect of furosemide, as the medication helps reduce fluid overload in heart failure. Choice A, increased shortness of breath, is incorrect as furosemide is used to relieve symptoms like shortness of breath. Choice B, weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb), is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid retention leading to weight loss. Choice D, bounding pulse, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact the pulse rate.
A client has a new ileostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Changing the entire pouching system weekly is essential for maintaining skin integrity and preventing infection. Option A is incorrect as applying a skin barrier should be done during the pouch change, not separately. Option B is incorrect as ileostomy pouches should be emptied when they are one-third to one-half full to prevent leakage. Option D is incorrect because cleansing the peristomal skin with alcohol can be too harsh and may cause skin irritation.
A client receiving intermittent enteral feedings is being cared for by a nurse. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the risk of aspiration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to reduce the risk of aspiration during enteral feedings is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent the reflux of feeding into the lungs. Administering the feeding over 60 minutes (Choice A) does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Positioning the client in a supine position (Choice B) increases the risk of aspiration as it promotes reflux. Flushing the feeding tube with water (Choice D) is important for tube patency but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration.
How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient with a central line for infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring the dressing site daily is crucial for detecting early signs of infection in patients with central lines. Checking for redness and swelling (choice B) is important but may indicate a more advanced stage of infection. Monitoring for fever (choice C) can also be a sign of infection, but it is a later manifestation. Flushing the central line (choice D) is necessary for maintaining patency but does not directly monitor for infection.
A nurse in a pediatric unit is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a 7-year-old. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because informing the child that they will feel discomfort during catheter insertion is crucial to prepare them for the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as children should not handle medical supplies. Choice C is inappropriate as using a restraint can cause anxiety and fear in the child. Choice D is not necessary as having parents present can provide comfort and support to the child during the procedure.
What is a crucial nursing responsibility when caring for a patient with a central line?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When caring for a patient with a central line, monitoring for infection is a crucial nursing responsibility. This is essential to prevent complications such as bloodstream infections. While flushing the line with saline and monitoring fluid balance are important aspects of care, they are not as critical as monitoring for infection. Replacing the central line is only done when necessary due to complications or at the end of its recommended use.
A nurse is providing teaching about immunizations to a client who is pregnant. The nurse should inform the client that she can receive which of the following immunizations during pregnancy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine. The Tdap vaccine can be safely administered during pregnancy to protect both the mother and the newborn against whooping cough. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Varicella vaccine, Inactivated polio vaccine, and Inactivated influenza vaccine are generally not recommended during pregnancy due to safety concerns.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. Sequential compression devices help prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of DVT by promoting blood flow in the legs. Massaging the client's legs every 2 hours (choice A) may dislodge a clot if present, leading to a higher risk of embolism. Instructing the client to sit with the legs crossed (choice B) can impede blood flow and increase the risk of DVT. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (choice C) is not indicated for preventing DVT, as antibiotics are used to treat infections caused by bacteria, not to prevent blood clots.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which of the following sites should the healthcare provider select?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in adults due to its large muscle mass and low risk of complications. The deltoid, although a common site for vaccines, has a smaller muscle mass and may not be suitable for all types of medications. The rectus femoris is a muscle in the thigh that is more commonly used for intramuscular injections in infants. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels.
A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught about lifestyle changes by a nurse. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct recommendation for a client with hypertension is to limit sodium intake to no more than 1,500 mg per day. This helps manage hypertension by reducing fluid retention and lowering blood pressure. Choice B is a good recommendation as well, but the primary focus for hypertension management in this scenario is limiting sodium. Choices C and D are incorrect as dairy products and carbohydrates are not directly linked to hypertension.
A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL. A low serum albumin level indicates protein deficiency, which can be a complication of TPN therapy and requires prompt intervention. The other laboratory findings provided (serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL, blood glucose level 120 mg/dL, and serum sodium 138 mEq/L) are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate complications related to TPN therapy.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client with a chest tube is to keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest. This positioning helps prevent fluid from flowing back into the pleural space, ensuring proper drainage and effective functioning of the chest tube. Clamping the chest tube intermittently or stripping it frequently can lead to complications and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage collection chamber at specific intervals may vary based on institutional protocols, but it should be done when it is no more than two-thirds full to prevent backflow and maintain accurate monitoring of drainage output.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a gastric bypass. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a postoperative client, a urine output of 30 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it indicates oliguria, which may suggest dehydration or kidney impairment. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring renal function and overall fluid status. A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range for an adult. An oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable and indicates adequate oxygenation. Serosanguineous wound drainage is expected in the early postoperative period and is not a cause for immediate concern unless it becomes excessive or changes character.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.
What is the most important nursing action when a patient has a central line?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most important nursing action when a patient has a central line is to monitor for infection. Central line-associated bloodstream infections are a serious complication that can lead to severe outcomes. Monitoring for infection involves assessing the patient for signs and symptoms such as fever, chills, and hypotension. While monitoring the central line dressing, redness, and swelling are also important aspects of care, they are secondary to monitoring for infection as the primary focus should be on preventing serious complications.
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for an arteriogram. Which of the following medications should the nurse instruct the client to discontinue 48 hours prior to the procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Metformin. Metformin should be discontinued 48 hours before an arteriogram due to the risk of lactic acidosis. Atorvastatin (Choice A) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not typically contraindicated before an arteriogram. Digoxin (Choice B) is a medication used for heart conditions and does not need to be discontinued before an arteriogram. Nifedipine (Choice C) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and angina, and it is not necessary to discontinue before the procedure.
A nurse is caring for a 1-day-old newborn who has jaundice and is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to ensure that the newborn wears a diaper. This is important to prevent irritation during phototherapy, as exposure to light can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Feeding the infant glucose water is unnecessary and not indicated for jaundice treatment. Keeping the infant's head uncovered allows the light to reach the skin effectively. Applying lotion to the newborn every 4 hours can interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy and is not recommended.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevated serum creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function. As kidney disease progresses, the kidneys are less able to filter waste products, leading to an increase in creatinine levels. Therefore, a high serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dL should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly signify worsening kidney function in this context.
A patient refused a newly open fentanyl patch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when a patient refuses a newly open fentanyl patch is to ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch. This is essential for accountability and ensuring proper disposal procedures are followed. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the patch in a sharps container without a witness does not ensure proper accountability. Choice C is incorrect as sending the patch back to the pharmacy is not the appropriate action for disposal. Choice D is incorrect because although documenting the refusal is important, it is also crucial to ensure proper disposal of the unused patch by having another nurse witness it.
A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.
A client with vision loss is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to keep objects in the client's room in the same place. This helps individuals with vision loss navigate their environment more easily by creating a familiar and consistent layout. Choice B, ensuring high-wattage lighting, may not be suitable for all clients with vision loss and can cause discomfort or glare. Approaching the client from the side (Choice C) can startle them and is not recommended. Touching the client (Choice D) without warning may cause anxiety or distress, so it's important to announce presence verbally.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer. Which of the following skin care instructions should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Wear loose clothing over the radiation site. Clients receiving radiation therapy should wear loose clothing over the treatment area to prevent irritation and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect as scented lotions can irritate the skin during radiation therapy. Choice C is incorrect because ice packs should not be applied to the radiation site as they can exacerbate skin reactions. Choice D is incorrect as exposing the radiation site to sunlight can increase skin damage and should be avoided.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the transmission of the disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Place the client in airborne isolation.' Tuberculosis is an airborne disease transmitted through droplet nuclei. Placing the client in airborne isolation helps prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A, placing the client in droplet isolation, is incorrect because tuberculosis is not transmitted through large droplets. Choice C, wearing a surgical mask when providing care to the client, is not sufficient as airborne precautions are necessary. Choice D, keeping the client's door closed at all times, does not directly address the prevention of disease transmission in this case.
How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient for infection post-surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Monitoring the surgical site is crucial to identify early signs of infection post-surgery. Redness, swelling, warmth, or discharge at the surgical site can indicate an infection. While monitoring for fever (choice B) is important as fever can also be a sign of infection, it may not always present immediately post-surgery. Checking blood pressure (choice C) is essential for other purposes but not specifically for monitoring infection post-surgery. Checking for redness (choice D) is limited as redness alone may not always indicate an infection, so it is not as comprehensive as monitoring the surgical site.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The corrected answer is A. Weighing daily is crucial for clients with heart failure to monitor fluid status since sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Choice B is incorrect because excessive water intake can worsen fluid retention in heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as some physical activity is encouraged for heart failure clients, tailored to their condition. Choice D is incorrect as adjusting medication doses should always be done under healthcare provider guidance rather than self-administration.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with DVT is to apply cold packs to the affected extremity. Cold packs can help reduce swelling and pain by constricting blood vessels. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and worsen the condition. Elevating the affected extremity helps with blood flow but is not the priority intervention for DVT. Performing range-of-motion exercises on the affected extremity can also dislodge a clot and is contraindicated.
A nurse in the PACU is caring for a client who reports nausea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take first when a client reports nausea in the PACU is to turn the client on their side. This action helps prevent aspiration in a client with nausea, reducing the risk of choking or inhaling vomitus. Administering an analgesic (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation unless pain is the primary cause of nausea. While administering an antiemetic (Choice C) can help relieve nausea, it is not the initial action to prevent aspiration. Monitoring the client's vital signs (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety by turning them on their side.
A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.
A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
What is the primary nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is the primary nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery because it helps address any potential hypoxia that may be contributing to the patient's confusion. While repositioning the patient, monitoring vital signs, and checking oxygen saturation are important nursing interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in ensuring adequate oxygenation levels, which is crucial in managing post-surgery confusion.
A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Inability to identify common objects. Clients with schizophrenia often experience cognitive deficits, such as difficulty in identifying common objects. This can be attributed to impairments in perception and cognition. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with schizophrenia. Decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of conditions like head injuries or metabolic disturbances. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances is commonly seen in somatic symptom disorders, not schizophrenia. Poor problem-solving ability is a characteristic of conditions affecting executive functioning like dementia, rather than schizophrenia.
A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A sodium level of 125 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which can lead to hypotension. Hyponatremia is associated with signs such as confusion and weakness, rather than increased appetite, dry mucous membranes, or hyperreflexia. Therefore, the nurse should expect hypotension as a finding in a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L.
A nurse is providing teaching about digoxin administration to the parents of a toddler with heart failure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement to include in the teaching about digoxin administration is to have the child drink a small glass of water after swallowing the medication. Water helps flush down the medication, preventing irritation in the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin may interact with potassium levels, but strict restriction is not necessary. Choice B is incorrect as medications should not be mixed with juices unless specified by the healthcare provider due to possible interactions. Choice C is incorrect because if a child vomits after taking digoxin, the dose should not be repeated to avoid double dosing.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'You should rinse your mouth after using this medication.' When providing discharge teaching for a client prescribed albuterol, the nurse should include the instruction to rinse the mouth after each use. This is important to prevent dry mouth and oral infections. Choice A is incorrect as albuterol is usually taken during the day to manage symptoms, not at bedtime. Choice B is incorrect as palpitations are not a common side effect of albuterol. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid eating before taking albuterol.
A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the scenario presented, the correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a verbal prescription for restraints due to acute mania is to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. Documenting at regular intervals is essential to monitor the client's well-being, assess the effects of the restraints, and ensure the client's safety. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as documenting the overall condition. Obtaining a prescription for restraints within 4 hours (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed when a verbal prescription is already obtained.
A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Polyuria is the excessive production of urine and is a common finding in clients with hyperglycemia due to increased glucose levels. High blood sugar levels lead to the body trying to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, resulting in increased urination. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is low blood sugar and is not typically associated with hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) is excessive sweating and is not a direct symptom of hyperglycemia. Tachycardia (choice D) is increased heart rate and is not a primary finding in hyperglycemia.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about ergonomic principles. Which of the following actions by the nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using a mechanical lift is an appropriate ergonomic technique as it reduces the risk of injury to both the nurse and the client by promoting safe client handling practices. Choice A is incorrect as standing with feet shoulder-width apart provides better balance and stability during lifting. Choice B is incorrect as raising the client's knees is not directly related to ergonomic principles. Choice D is incorrect as placing a gait belt around the client's waist is a safety measure but does not specifically demonstrate an understanding of ergonomic principles.
A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.
A client who has a new prescription for lithium is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Drinking at least 2 liters of water daily is crucial for clients taking lithium to prevent dehydration and lithium toxicity. Lithium is a salt, so it's important for clients to maintain adequate hydration. Option A is incorrect because lithium does not interact with tyramine-containing foods. Option B is incorrect because increasing salt intake is not necessary and can actually exacerbate lithium toxicity. Option D is incorrect because avoiding caffeinated beverages is not a priority teaching point for clients taking lithium.
A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about managing protein intake. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: "You should limit your intake of high-protein foods." Clients with chronic kidney disease should reduce their intake of high-protein foods to lessen the workload on the kidneys and prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increasing intake of either plant-based or animal protein or high-protein foods can exacerbate kidney issues in individuals with chronic kidney disease.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as a contraindication for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A) and metoprolol (choice D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Ibuprofen (choice B) is an NSAID that can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, but clopidogrel is a more significant contraindication due to its antiplatelet effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be cautious when combining warfarin with clopidogrel due to the increased risk of bleeding compared to other options.
A nurse is completing an incident report after a client fall. Which of the following competencies of Quality and Safety Education for Nurses is the nurse demonstrating?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Quality improvement. Completing an incident report after a client fall aligns with the quality improvement competency of QSEN, as it involves identifying a system issue (fall incident) that needs to be addressed to enhance the quality of care. Choice B, patient safety, focuses more on preventing harm to patients rather than the systematic improvement process. Choice C, evidence-based practice, pertains to integrating research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values in decision-making, which is not directly related to incident reporting. Choice D, informatics, involves using technology and data to support decision-making and improve patient care, which is not the primary focus when completing an incident report.
A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (choice A) is important but not the next immediate action. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (choice C) is important but not the priority at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not the priority action in this scenario.
Which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for patients on heparin therapy as it helps determine the clotting ability of the blood. By monitoring aPTT, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of heparin to maintain therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR is more commonly associated with warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but is not specific to heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness or safety of heparin therapy.
How should a healthcare provider care for a patient with a tracheostomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Suctioning the tracheostomy regularly is crucial in caring for a patient with a tracheostomy as it helps keep the airway clear of secretions, preventing blockages and potential complications. Cleaning the tracheostomy site daily is important for hygiene but not as critical as regular suctioning. Changing the tracheostomy ties daily may not be necessary unless soiled or loose. Providing humidified oxygen may be part of the care plan but is not as directly related to maintaining the tracheostomy patency as suctioning.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clozapine. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor the WBC count. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in WBC count, which can increase the risk of infection. Monitoring the WBC count is essential to detect this potentially life-threatening condition early. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is not directly related to clozapine use. Platelet count (Choice C) and hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are not typically affected by clozapine and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.
A client at risk for osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about dietary measures to increase calcium intake. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Broccoli. Broccoli is high in calcium, making it a suitable recommendation for clients at risk for osteoporosis. Carrots, Cottage cheese, and Bananas are not significant sources of calcium compared to broccoli, and therefore, they are not the best choices to increase calcium intake.
What is the most important nursing action for a patient presenting with confusion after surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is crucial for a patient presenting with confusion after surgery because it helps alleviate potential hypoxia, which can be a common cause of confusion in the postoperative period. While repositioning the patient, administering IV fluids, and performing a neurological assessment are important nursing interventions in certain situations, addressing hypoxia by administering oxygen takes priority in this case to ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the brain and other vital organs.
A nurse is assessing a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Crackles in the lung bases. In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, suggesting worsening respiratory status. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B, an oxygen saturation of 95%, is within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, a heart rate of 88/min, is also within normal limits and does not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Choice D, a frequent productive cough, is a common symptom in pneumonia and may not require immediate reporting unless it is severe or worsening. Therefore, crackles in the lung bases are the most concerning finding that warrants prompt attention.
A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should include for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, straining, and subsequent bleeding, which is crucial for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia management.
A healthcare provider is preparing education material for a client. Which technique should the healthcare provider use in creating the material?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Using a 7th-grade reading level is the most effective technique when creating education material for clients because it ensures that the content is easily understood by a wide range of individuals. Option A, emphasizing important information with bold lettering, may help draw attention but doesn't guarantee comprehension. Option C, avoiding cartoons, is not necessarily a universal rule and can sometimes make material more engaging. Option D, using words with three or four syllables, can make the material more complex and harder to understand, defeating the purpose of effective communication in education material.
What is the priority nursing action for a patient with shortness of breath?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy aims to improve oxygenation levels quickly, addressing the underlying cause of the symptom. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and elevating the head of the bed are important interventions but administering oxygen takes precedence in this scenario to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the body.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, 'Undermining.' Undermining occurs when the tissue under the wound edges erodes, indicating poor healing progress. This finding should be reported to the provider as it suggests delayed wound healing and may require intervention. Choice A, 'Eschar,' is a thick, hard, black/brown necrotic tissue that forms over a wound. While it indicates a non-healing wound, it is not as concerning as undermining. Choice B, 'Slough,' is a soft, moist, yellow/white tissue that is also a sign of necrosis. While the presence of slough indicates the need for wound cleaning and debridement, it is not as critical to report as undermining. Choice C, 'Granulation tissue,' is new tissue that forms during wound healing and is a positive sign. The presence of granulation tissue indicates that the wound is progressing through the healing stages and is not a finding that requires immediate reporting to the provider.
How should a healthcare professional prepare a patient for a colonoscopy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Giving a bowel prep solution is essential to clean out the colon thoroughly before a colonoscopy. This process is crucial as it helps to achieve a clear view of the colon during the procedure. Providing clear instructions on diet (Choice A) and ensuring the patient has an empty stomach (Choice C) are important steps in the preparation process but may not be sufficient on their own to adequately cleanse the colon. Explaining the procedure in detail (Choice B) is helpful for patient education but does not directly contribute to the physical preparation required for a successful colonoscopy.
When digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction, what action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action when digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma and is the appropriate method for addressing fecal impaction. Choice B is incorrect as stimulating peristalsis will not directly assist in evacuating the impacted stool. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the abdomen is not the recommended method for stool evacuation. Choice D is incorrect as increasing fluid intake does not directly aid in digitally evacuating the stool.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A urine output of 30 mL/hr is significantly low and indicates possible renal impairment or inadequate perfusion to the kidneys, which are critical for postoperative recovery. In this situation, decreased urine output could lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, affecting the client's overall condition. The nurse should report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a normal finding in the early postoperative period and does not typically warrant immediate concern. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range and may be expected in a postoperative client due to the stress response. A temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated but not a concerning finding in isolation postoperatively.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a gastrectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a serious condition post-gastrectomy. Hypoxemia can lead to inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues, potentially causing complications like organ dysfunction or failure. This finding requires immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are within normal ranges for a client post-gastrectomy, so they do not require immediate reporting to the provider.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A urine output of 30 mL/hr is significantly low and indicates possible renal impairment or inadequate perfusion to the kidneys, which are critical for postoperative recovery. In this situation, decreased urine output could lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, affecting the client's overall condition. The nurse should report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a normal finding in the early postoperative period and does not typically warrant immediate concern. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range and may be expected in a postoperative client due to the stress response. A temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is slightly elevated but not a concerning finding in isolation postoperatively.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a gastrectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a serious condition post-gastrectomy. Hypoxemia can lead to inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues, potentially causing complications like organ dysfunction or failure. This finding requires immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are within normal ranges for a client post-gastrectomy, so they do not require immediate reporting to the provider.
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