ati exit exam 2024 ATI Exit Exam 2024 - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Insulin glargine has a 24-hour duration of action, making it suitable for once-daily dosing for long-term blood sugar control. Choice A is incorrect as insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak effect in its action profile. Choice C is incorrect as insulin glargine is usually given at the same time each day regardless of meals. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid eating before or after taking insulin glargine.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable cardioverter defibrillator. Which of the following statements demonstrates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Wearing loose clothing around the ICD is essential to avoid putting pressure on the device, which can interfere with its function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Soaking in a tub rather than showering is not relevant to ICD care. Stopping the use of a microwave oven is not necessary with an ICD. Holding a cellphone on the same side as the ICD is not recommended as it can potentially interfere with the device.

3. A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately following birth. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, a heart rate of 160/min. A heart rate of 160/min in a newborn exceeds the normal range and could indicate potential issues that need further evaluation by the provider. Acrocyanosis (choice A) is a common finding in newborns and is not concerning. Vernix caseosa (choice B) is a white, cheesy substance found on newborn skin and is a normal finding. While a respiratory rate of 50/min (choice C) is slightly elevated, it is not as concerning as a high heart rate in a newborn.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer an enema to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to the left Sims' position when administering an enema. This position helps facilitate the flow of the enema solution into the rectum. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (Choice A) is not ideal for administering an enema. Inserting the enema tubing 2.5 cm (1 in) into the rectum (Choice C) is incorrect as it should be inserted 7.5-10 cm (3-4 in) for an adult. Lubricating the tip of the enema tubing with petroleum jelly (Choice D) is a correct step to ease insertion but is not the most critical action among the choices provided.

5. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

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