ati rn comprehensive exit exam ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging compliance through education is crucial in helping patients understand the importance of consistent medication use. By providing education, the patient can make informed decisions about their health and better manage their condition. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but the initial approach should focus on patient education. Documenting the refusal (choice C) is important for legal and medical records but does not address the root cause of non-compliance. Exploring alternative treatment options (choice D) should come after efforts to educate and encourage compliance with the current medication regimen.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dark, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious side effect of enoxaparin that requires immediate medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the adverse effects of enoxaparin, so they do not take precedence over the urgent concern of gastrointestinal bleeding.

3. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient with kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. This method is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients with kidney disease. Daily weight monitoring can detect even small changes in fluid balance, such as fluid retention or loss, which may not be evident through other methods. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance as it doesn't consider factors like insensible losses. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid retention but may not always be present or may be difficult to assess accurately. Checking urine output (choice D) is important but may not reflect the overall fluid balance status of the patient.

4. If a nurse administers an incorrect dose of medication, which fact related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the time the medication was given. This is essential for understanding the sequence of events surrounding the medication error. While documenting the client's response to the medication (Choice B) is important for assessing any effects, the immediate concern should be to establish a clear timeline by documenting the time of administration. Recording the dose administered (Choice C) is also important, but in the context of understanding the incident, the time factor takes precedence. The reason for the error (Choice D) should be included in the incident report but may not be the first priority when documenting in the client's medical record.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the transmission of the disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Place the client in airborne isolation.' Tuberculosis is an airborne disease transmitted through droplet nuclei. Placing the client in airborne isolation helps prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A, placing the client in droplet isolation, is incorrect because tuberculosis is not transmitted through large droplets. Choice C, wearing a surgical mask when providing care to the client, is not sufficient as airborne precautions are necessary. Choice D, keeping the client's door closed at all times, does not directly address the prevention of disease transmission in this case.

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