ati rn comprehensive exit exam ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for a client who is Jewish and observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Kosher dietary laws require the separation of meat and dairy products. Choice A is incorrect because leavened bread is not eaten during Passover in Jewish dietary practices. Choice B is incorrect as shellfish is not considered kosher and is not consumed in Jewish dietary practices. Choice D is incorrect as fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall when administering enoxaparin. This is the recommended technique to ensure proper absorption and prevent tissue damage. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should be administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended, as it can cause bruising and discomfort. Choice D is incorrect because the prefilled syringe should not be discarded after expelling the air bubble; it should be used for the injection.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is unrelated to furosemide therapy. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to limit calcium-rich foods while taking furosemide.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess for infection in a patient post-surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing for infection in a patient post-surgery, checking the surgical site is crucial. Changes in the appearance of the surgical site, such as redness, swelling, warmth, or drainage, can indicate an infection. While checking for fever (Choice B) is also important as it can be a sign of infection, it is a more general symptom and may not always be present. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice C) and skin color (Choice D) are not typically direct indicators of infection in a post-surgery patient.

5. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

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