Free ATI RN Exit practice for ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam (ATI RN). Answer 83 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 90 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. With contractions occurring every 90 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, the contractions are too frequent and prolonged, which can lead to uterine rupture or fetal distress. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, potentially causing harm to the mother and fetus. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion might not be sufficient to address the issue, making discontinuation the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of both the client and the baby.
A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications such as thromboembolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not contraindications for oral contraceptives. Hyperthyroidism may affect the metabolism of contraceptives but does not contraindicate their use. Diverticulosis and hypocalcemia do not directly impact the safety or effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Jitteriness is a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice A, 'Loose stools,' is not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice C, 'Hypertonia,' is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns; instead, hypotonia may be observed. Choice D, 'Abdominal distention,' is not a typical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which action should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action when digitally evacuating a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma and effectively dislodge the impacted stool. Choice B, applying lubricant and stimulating peristalsis, is incorrect as it does not directly address the evacuation of the impacted stool. Choice C, applying pressure to the abdomen, is inappropriate and may cause discomfort or harm to the client. Choice D, increasing fluid intake before the procedure, is not directly related to the immediate evacuation of the fecal impaction.
A client in end-stage osteoporosis is reporting severe pain, with a respiratory rate of 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be the highest priority to administer to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with severe pain like the one described, the priority medication to administer is a potent analgesic like hydromorphone. Hydromorphone is a strong opioid pain medication that can effectively manage severe pain. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antiemetic and antihistamine, not a pain medication. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is contraindicated in end-stage renal disease due to its potential to cause kidney damage. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, but it is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify which finding as an indication of effective treatment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The client reporting feeling less anxious is a positive indication of effective treatment for a pulmonary embolism. This suggests that the client's condition is improving psychologically. Option A is incorrect because increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate unresolved issues related to the embolism. Option C is incorrect as diminished breath sounds bilaterally suggest a complication or worsening of the condition. Option D is incorrect as ABG results within normal range do not necessarily indicate effective treatment for a pulmonary embolism, as other complications may still be present.
While caring for a newborn with jaundice receiving phototherapy, what action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take while caring for a newborn with jaundice receiving phototherapy is to ensure that the newborn wears a diaper. This is essential to prevent skin irritation during phototherapy. Feeding the infant glucose water or applying lotion are not pertinent to managing jaundice or phototherapy. Keeping the infant's head covered with a cap is also not necessary for this specific situation.
What is the primary action when caring for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This type of dressing helps maintain a moist environment that is conducive to healing in stage 3 pressure ulcers. Providing wound debridement (choice B) is more suitable for higher stages of pressure ulcers where there is necrotic tissue. Changing the dressing daily (choice C) may be necessary but is not the primary action for a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Applying moist gauze (choice D) is not the recommended approach as it does not provide the same benefits as a hydrocolloid dressing.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to prevent injury?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises are crucial for preventing bone density loss in clients with osteoporosis. These exercises help strengthen bones and reduce the risk of fractures. Option B, avoiding crossing the legs beyond the midline, is not directly related to preventing injury in osteoporosis. Option C, avoiding sitting in one position for prolonged periods, is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not specifically address preventing injury in osteoporosis. Option D, splinting the affected area, is not a standard recommendation for preventing injury in osteoporosis.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of alcohol use disorder and is experiencing withdrawal. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with alcohol use disorder experiencing withdrawal is to administer diazepam. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage withdrawal symptoms in these clients by reducing anxiety, tremors, and the risk of seizures. Administering naloxone (Choice A) is used for opioid overdose, not alcohol withdrawal. Encouraging oral fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial but not a specific intervention for alcohol withdrawal. Administering magnesium sulfate (Choice D) is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal but may be used for other conditions like preeclampsia or eclampsia.
A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In schizophrenia, clients often display an inability to identify common objects due to cognitive impairment. This is known as associative agnosia, where individuals struggle to recognize familiar objects, faces, or sounds. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with schizophrenia. Decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of conditions like head trauma or drug overdose. Poor problem-solving ability may be seen in various mental health disorders but is not specific to schizophrenia. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances is more commonly seen in somatic symptom disorders or somatic delusions, not a typical finding in schizophrenia.
What is the priority intervention for a patient with dehydration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is the priority as it helps rapidly restore hydration in patients with dehydration by delivering fluids directly into the bloodstream. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but comes after providing immediate fluid resuscitation. Administering oral fluids (choice C) may not be sufficient for a patient with dehydration who requires rapid rehydration. Providing electrolyte replacement (choice D) is essential but often follows fluid resuscitation to correct any electrolyte imbalances resulting from dehydration.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes with a duration of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. With contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds, this pattern indicates hyperstimulation, which can be harmful to the fetus. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is essential to prevent further harm. Increasing the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, maintaining it would continue the risk, and providing reassurance to the client, although important, does not address the need for immediate action to ensure the safety of the fetus.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.
A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Clients taking digoxin should check their pulse before each dose to ensure it is within the appropriate range. Option A is incorrect because stopping the medication based solely on a heart rate below 80/min is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as having a pulse above 100/min doesn't necessarily indicate a need to stop digoxin. Option D is incorrect because digoxin should not be taken with an antacid as it can interfere with its absorption.
A client with schizophrenia starting therapy with clozapine is being discharged. Which symptom should the client report to the provider as the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Fever. When a client is taking clozapine, fever can indicate serious conditions such as infection or severe reactions, which need immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), blurred vision (choice B), and dry mouth (choice D) are common side effects of clozapine but are not as urgent as fever. Constipation can be managed with dietary changes or medications, blurred vision can improve over time, and dry mouth can be relieved with frequent sips of water.
A nurse is preparing to administer a controlled substance. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse preparing to administer a controlled substance is to witness the waste of the controlled substance by another nurse. This practice is crucial to prevent misuse and ensure accurate documentation. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the controlled substance by oneself without proper witnessing is not in accordance with safety protocols. Choice C is incorrect as leaving a controlled substance unattended in a client's room poses risks of diversion or unauthorized access. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the administration and signing off at the end of the shift is important but does not specifically address the issue of witnessing the waste of a controlled substance, which is a critical step in ensuring proper handling and accountability.
A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. When a client receives antibiotics 2 hours late, it constitutes a medication error, requiring the completion of an incident report. Choice B, a client vomiting within 20 minutes of taking medications, does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is suspected to be related to a medication error. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication an hour early, are not incidents that mandate the completion of an incident report unless there are specific circumstances indicating otherwise.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving gentamicin for a wound infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An elevated BUN level indicates possible nephrotoxicity, which is a side effect of gentamicin and should be reported. Elevated serum creatinine and WBC count are not specifically related to gentamicin therapy. Normal serum glucose levels are also within the expected range.
A nurse is providing care for a client who is in the advanced stage of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which of the following referrals is the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the advanced stage of ALS, clients often experience swallowing difficulties, known as dysphagia. A speech-language pathologist specializes in assessing and managing these swallowing problems, making them the nurse's priority referral in this case. A psychologist primarily focuses on mental health and emotional well-being, which may not be the most critical issue at this stage. Social workers assist with social support and resources, while occupational therapists help with activities of daily living and mobility, which are important but not the priority when dysphagia is a concern.
A client has deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for a nurse caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to apply warm compresses to the affected extremity. Warm compresses help reduce swelling and pain in clients with DVT. Administering thrombolytics (Choice A) is not typically done without specific orders due to the risk of bleeding. Massaging the affected extremity (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and lead to complications. Placing the client in a supine position with the legs elevated (Choice D) may increase the risk of clot dislodgment.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct recommendation for a client with irritable bowel syndrome is to consume food high in bran fiber. Bran fiber promotes regularity and can help reduce symptoms of IBS. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing milk products, sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup, and consuming foods high in gluten can exacerbate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome in some individuals.
A nurse is preparing discharge information for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following resources should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Food exchange lists from the American Diabetes Association are a reliable resource for meal planning in diabetes. They provide structured guidance on appropriate food choices and portion sizes. Choice A, personal blogs, may not always offer accurate and evidence-based information. Choice C, diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference, is not directly related to meal planning. Choice D, food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine, while important for understanding nutritional content, may not provide the structured meal planning guidance needed for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a history of falls. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Use nonskid footwear while ambulating.' This action is crucial in preventing falls in clients with a history of falls as it provides better traction and stability while walking. Choice A, 'Keep all four side rails up,' is not recommended as it can lead to client restraint and is not a fall prevention strategy. Choice B, 'Ensure the client's bed is in the lowest position,' is important for preventing injuries from falls out of bed but does not directly address fall prevention during ambulation. Choice D, 'Place a bedside commode close to the client's bed,' is a good practice for toileting safety but does not specifically address preventing falls while walking.
A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Metformin should be taken with a full glass of water in the morning to improve absorption and prevent gastrointestinal upset. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is not typically taken at bedtime. Choice C is unrelated to metformin therapy. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is actually better absorbed when taken with or after meals.
What is the best nursing intervention for a patient experiencing fluid overload?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best nursing intervention for a patient experiencing fluid overload is to administer diuretics. Diuretics help the body to remove excess fluid by increasing urine output. This intervention is crucial in managing fluid overload. Administering IV fluids (Choice B) would worsen the condition by adding more fluids to the already overloaded system. Providing oral fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate as it would further contribute to the fluid overload. Chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is not indicated in the treatment of fluid overload and would not address the underlying issue of excess fluid accumulation.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Placing a pillow under the client's lower legs is the correct intervention because it helps prevent pressure on the incision site and promotes circulation. Elevating the lower legs also aids in reducing swelling and improving blood flow. Applying heat to the incision site (Choice A) is contraindicated in the early postoperative period as it can increase inflammation and the risk of infection. Keeping the client's knee flexed while in bed (Choice B) may lead to contractures or limited extension of the knee joint. Placing a pillow under the client's knee (Choice C) may cause hyperextension of the knee, which is also not recommended post knee arthroplasty.
A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect to be elevated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Amylase. Amylase levels are elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) is not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Bilirubin (choice B) may be elevated in conditions affecting the liver, not specifically in acute pancreatitis. Creatinine (choice D) is a marker of kidney function and is not directly related to acute pancreatitis.
How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic heart failure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is crucial in managing patients with chronic heart failure as it helps assess fluid balance. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to detect any sudden weight gain, which could indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure. This intervention helps in adjusting treatment plans promptly. Providing fluid restriction (Choice B) can be a part of managing heart failure but is not the primary intervention mentioned in the question. Administering diuretics (Choice C) is a treatment modality for heart failure but does not encompass the comprehensive approach to patient management. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not specifically address the direct assessment of fluid status as daily weight monitoring does.
A client has a new diagnosis of hypertension, and a nurse is teaching about dietary management. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Limit your sodium intake to 2,000 mg per day. Limiting sodium intake helps manage hypertension by reducing fluid retention and lowering blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of high-fat foods can worsen hypertension by contributing to weight gain and other cardiovascular risks. Choice C is incorrect as green, leafy vegetables are beneficial for hypertension due to their high potassium and other nutrient content. Choice D is incorrect as limiting potassium intake is typically not recommended for hypertension management unless specified by a healthcare provider.
A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Increased bilirubin levels are expected in clients with cirrhosis due to impaired liver function. Elevated bilirubin levels are commonly seen in cirrhosis as the liver's ability to process bilirubin is compromised. Decreased albumin levels and increased prothrombin time are also associated with cirrhosis, but the most specific finding related to liver dysfunction among the choices provided is increased bilirubin levels. Decreased serum glucose levels are not typically associated with cirrhosis.
What is the best way to assess a patient's respiratory function after surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check oxygen saturation. This is because checking oxygen saturation provides a direct measure of how well the patient is oxygenating post-surgery. It helps healthcare providers assess if the patient is receiving enough oxygen to meet their body's needs. Auscultating lung sounds (choice B) is important to assess respiratory function but may not provide an immediate indication of oxygenation status. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice C) is relevant but does not directly assess oxygenation levels. Checking skin color (choice D) can provide some information about oxygenation, but it is not as precise or direct as measuring oxygen saturation.
What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.
A client has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because enoxaparin should be injected into the abdomen to ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect as enoxaparin should not be taken with food. Choice B is incorrect as enoxaparin should be injected subcutaneously, not into the muscle. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administering enoxaparin is not recommended.
A nurse is caring for a client who is comatose and has advance directives that indicate the client does not want life-sustaining measures. The client's family wants the client to have life-sustaining measures. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should arrange for an ethics committee meeting to address the family's concerns while ensuring the client's wishes are respected. Choosing option A allows for a formal discussion involving healthcare professionals, family members, and possibly a legal expert to navigate the situation ethically and legally. Supporting the family's decision to initiate life-sustaining measures (option B) would disregard the client's advance directives and autonomy. Completing an incident report (option C) is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the conflict of interest between the family's desires and the client's wishes. Encouraging the family to contact an attorney (option D) may escalate the situation unnecessarily before exploring more ethical and collaborative approaches.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, warmth and redness in the calf. These symptoms may indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication following hip arthroplasty that requires immediate attention. A heart rate of 90/min and blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an urgent issue. Pink-tinged urine may suggest blood in the urine, which should be monitored but is not as critical as the potential DVT.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a low-sodium diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Fresh vegetables are an excellent choice for clients on a low-sodium diet as they are naturally low in sodium. Pickles, canned soup, and smoked salmon are high in sodium and should be avoided by clients following a low-sodium diet. Pickles are pickled in a brine solution high in sodium, canned soup usually contains added salt for preservation, and smoked salmon is a processed food that typically has a high sodium content.
A client has a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to keep the client's head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression by reducing the risk of reflux and promoting proper drainage. Choice A is incorrect because checking for bowel sounds is not directly related to the care of a nasogastric tube. Choice B is incorrect as flushing the NG tube every 24 hours is not a standard nursing practice and may lead to complications. Choice C is incorrect because providing sips of water may interfere with the purpose of gastric decompression, which is to keep the stomach empty.
When discussing clients designating a health care proxy in situations requiring a durable power of attorney for health care (DPAHC), what information should the charge nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. The charge nurse should include information that the proxy can make treatment decisions if the client is under anesthesia. This is a key function of a durable power of attorney for health care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a health care proxy's role is specifically related to making health care decisions, not financial decisions, legal issues, or decisions made under anesthesia.
What is the primary purpose of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Regulate blood glucose levels.' Administering insulin to a patient with diabetes helps regulate blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells, thereby lowering high blood sugar levels. This process aims to prevent hyperglycemia and its associated complications. Choice B, 'Increase metabolism,' is incorrect as the primary role of insulin is not to increase metabolism directly. Choice C, 'Prevent complications,' is partially correct as regulating blood glucose through insulin administration does help prevent complications associated with uncontrolled diabetes, but it is not the primary purpose. Choice D, 'Promote insulin sensitivity,' is incorrect as insulin itself is administered to compensate for the lack of endogenous insulin in diabetic patients, rather than to promote sensitivity to it.
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 weeks gestation about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because amniocentesis is a procedure that confirms genetic disorders by analyzing the amniotic fluid surrounding the baby. Choice B is incorrect because amniocentesis is not used to assess lung maturity. Choice C is incorrect because some discomfort or pain may be felt during the procedure. Choice D is incorrect because amniocentesis does not primarily assess the amount of amniotic fluid around the baby.
A client is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering morphine for pain relief is crucial for postoperative clients following a cholecystectomy to manage pain effectively. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can cause discomfort and hinder breathing. Applying a warm compress to the incision site can increase the risk of infection. Placing a pillow under the client's knees is not a priority intervention compared to pain management.
A nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about measures to take when caring for a client who is on contact precautions. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct measure to include when caring for a client on contact precautions is to wear gloves when providing care. Gloves help prevent the spread of infection and cross-contamination. Choice A is incorrect because the protective gown should be removed before leaving the client's room to prevent the spread of pathogens. Choice B is incorrect as clients on contact precautions should be in a room with negative pressure to prevent the spread of airborne contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a mask when changing linens is not specifically required for contact precautions.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect to be elevated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Serum amylase levels are typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis as it is an enzyme released by the pancreas. Elevated serum sodium, calcium, or glucose levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.
A charge nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about the correct use of restraints. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated is an appropriate use of restraints to prevent the child from falling, which is an essential safety measure. Placing a belt restraint on a school-age child with seizures (choice A) is not recommended as it can be dangerous during a seizure. Securing wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent (choice B) may cause harm and should not be done routinely. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant receiving a cleft lip injury (choice C) is not a standard practice for managing this condition and would not be appropriate.
What is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation levels and alleviates respiratory distress directly. Providing oxygen addresses the primary issue of inadequate oxygen supply, which is crucial in managing respiratory distress. Repositioning the patient, while important for airway clearance, may not address the immediate need for oxygen. Providing bronchodilators and humidified air can be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but when a patient is in respiratory distress, ensuring adequate oxygenation through oxygen administration takes precedence.
How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a central line to prevent infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Changing the central line dressing daily is crucial in preventing infection at the insertion site. This practice helps maintain a clean and sterile environment around the central line, reducing the risk of pathogens entering the bloodstream. Monitoring for redness (choice B) is important but may not directly prevent infection. Checking the central line site every shift (choice C) is essential for early detection of any issues but does not solely prevent infection. Flushing the line with saline (choice D) is a necessary procedure for maintaining central line patency but does not primarily prevent infection.
A healthcare professional is receiving a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which client information should the healthcare professional report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a postoperative client, a low-grade fever can be an early sign of infection, which is crucial to report to the healthcare team for timely intervention. Shortness of breath and decreased urine output are also important to monitor, but in the context of postoperative care, infection is a more immediate concern. A high platelet count is not typically a priority in the immediate postoperative period.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Auscultating crackles in the lung bases indicates fluid in the lungs, which can be a sign of aspiration pneumonia or pulmonary edema and requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory distress. Aspirating 100 mL of gastric residual is within the acceptable range and does not require immediate intervention. A gastric pH of 4 is normal for gastric contents. Checking residual every 6 hours is a routine nursing intervention and does not indicate an urgent issue like pulmonary complications.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal is to administer lorazepam as prescribed. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to prevent seizures and manage agitation in clients undergoing alcohol withdrawal. Administering haloperidol (Choice A) is not recommended in alcohol withdrawal as it may lower the seizure threshold. Keeping the client in a supine position (Choice B) is not specifically indicated in managing alcohol withdrawal. Encouraging the client to drink fluids with meals (Choice D) is important for hydration but does not address the acute symptoms of alcohol withdrawal.
A client with heart failure is receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Measuring the client's intake and output every 2 hours is essential when caring for a client receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Milrinone is a medication that affects fluid balance, and monitoring intake and output helps assess the client's response to the medication. Continuous monitoring of blood pressure may not be necessary unless there is a specific indication. While weighing the client daily is important for overall assessment, measuring intake and output more frequently provides more real-time data for fluid balance evaluation. Monitoring the infusion site is crucial for detecting infiltration but is not directly related to managing fluid balance in this situation.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has mild persistent asthma and has been prescribed montelukast. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Montelukast should be taken daily in the evening for long-term control of asthma, rather than for immediate relief. Choice A is incorrect because montelukast is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as montelukast works by blocking leukotrienes, not by decreasing swelling and mucus production. Choice C is incorrect as montelukast is not specifically taken before exercise.
A nurse is teaching a client who has diabetes mellitus about foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction the nurse should include is to 'Wear cotton socks to keep your feet dry.' This is essential in diabetes mellitus as moisture can lead to infections. Choice A is incorrect as soaking feet in warm water can actually cause dryness and skin breakdown, which is harmful in diabetes. Choice C is incorrect as applying lotion between the toes can create excess moisture, increasing the risk of fungal infections. Choice D is incorrect as cutting toenails in a rounded shape can lead to ingrown toenails; clients with diabetes should cut their nails straight across to prevent complications.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention the nurse should include in the plan of care for a client with heart failure is to monitor the client's weight daily. Daily weight monitoring is essential to assess fluid balance and detect any signs of worsening heart failure. Limiting fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day (Choice A) may be appropriate in some cases, but it is not the initial priority for this client. Encouraging the client to walk every 2 hours (Choice B) is generally beneficial for mobility but may not be directly related to managing heart failure. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min (Choice D) is a supportive measure for hypoxia but does not directly address heart failure management.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication.' This instruction is crucial when taking alendronate as it reduces the risk of esophagitis by preventing the medication from irritating the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because alendronate should be taken in the morning, not at bedtime, to enhance absorption. Choice B is incorrect as alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, preferably in the morning, with a full glass of water. Choice D is incorrect as there are no specific restrictions on taking alendronate with calcium-rich foods.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Pain in the right shoulder after a cholecystectomy is common due to residual gas from the procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. It is important to avoid heavy lifting for a longer period than just 1 week to prevent complications. Resuming usual activities after 2 weeks may not be appropriate depending on the individual's recovery. Following a low-protein diet is not a standard recommendation post-cholecystectomy.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Taking the pulse before taking digoxin is crucial as it helps monitor the heart rate, as digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect. Option B is incorrect because digoxin should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Option C is incorrect because digoxin should be held and the healthcare provider should be contacted if the heart rate is less than 60/min. Option D is incorrect because digoxin should not be taken with food due to decreased absorption.
A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of vancomycin IV to a client who has a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to check the client's creatinine level before administering vancomycin. Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, so assessing the client's renal function before administering the medication is crucial to prevent further kidney damage. Administering the medication over 15 minutes (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as renal function assessment takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important for assessing renal function but checking creatinine level directly provides more accurate information. Assessing for allergies to antibiotics (Choice D) is also important but not as essential as checking the creatinine level due to the nephrotoxic nature of vancomycin.
How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.
While caring for a newborn under phototherapy lights, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to ensure the eye shield is covering the eyes. Protecting the newborn's eyes from exposure to direct light is crucial during phototherapy to prevent potential eye damage. Applying lotion to the exposed skin (choice B) is not recommended as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the phototherapy. Offering glucose water between feedings (choice C) is not necessary and may not be suitable for a newborn undergoing treatment. Discontinuing breastfeeding during treatment (choice D) is not recommended as breast milk provides essential nutrients and hydration for the newborn, and breastfeeding should continue unless contraindicated by a specific medical condition.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Shortness of breath is a critical finding that can indicate a pulmonary embolism, a severe complication of DVT. This symptom suggests a potential life-threatening situation and requires immediate intervention. Calf tenderness, while common in DVT, is not as urgent as shortness of breath. Elevated blood pressure and a respiratory rate of 18/min are important to assess but are not typically as indicative of a serious complication like a pulmonary embolism.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because taking metformin with food helps reduce gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as metformin is usually taken with meals to minimize side effects. Choice B is incorrect because metformin does not typically cause urine discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is associated with weight loss or weight neutrality rather than weight gain.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which statement should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement is B: 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.' Dehydration can lead to increased uterine irritability, potentially causing preterm contractions and labor. Choice A is incorrect as dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with fluids. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by a lack of fluids. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration does not directly cause gastroesophageal reflux.
A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Avoid eating spicy foods.' Spicy foods can exacerbate symptoms of GERD by irritating the esophagus and causing discomfort. It is important for clients with GERD to avoid spicy foods to help manage their condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with GERD should not lie down after meals as this can worsen symptoms, limiting fluid intake to only 1 liter per day may not be appropriate for everyone, and eating three large meals each day can put pressure on the stomach and worsen GERD symptoms.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by assessing which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Client-reported improvement in anxiety is an indication of effective treatment for pulmonary embolism. Choice A is incorrect as increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate complications or lack of improvement. Choice C is incorrect as diminished breath sounds auscultated unilaterally may suggest a localized lung issue and not necessarily reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG results provided do not specifically indicate the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism.
What is the most effective intervention for a patient experiencing acute pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering analgesics is the most effective intervention for a patient experiencing acute pain as it directly targets the pain receptors and provides relief. Repositioning the patient may help in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for managing acute pain. Non-pharmacological interventions can be beneficial as adjuncts to pain management but might not provide immediate relief. Administering IV fluids is not a standard intervention for acute pain unless dehydration is contributing to the pain.
A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An INR of 3.0 is elevated, indicating impaired blood clotting function, which poses a significant risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. This finding should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Albumin 3.5 g/dL) is within the normal range and indicates adequate liver synthetic function, so it does not require immediate reporting. Choice B (Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL) is also within the normal range and typically seen in clients without significant liver dysfunction, so it does not need urgent attention. Choice D (Ammonia 80 mcg/dL) is elevated, but it is not the priority finding in cirrhosis; elevated ammonia levels are associated with hepatic encephalopathy rather than increased bleeding risk.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of angina. The client reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when a client with a history of angina reports chest pain is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin every 5 minutes. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart and relieving chest pain associated with angina. Aspirin is often given during a suspected heart attack, not for immediate relief of angina. Deep breathing exercises may be beneficial for anxiety or respiratory conditions but are not the first-line intervention for angina. Oxygen therapy is not the initial treatment for angina unless the client is hypoxic.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals to improve absorption and reduce gastrointestinal upset. Metformin is typically recommended to be taken with food to minimize side effects. Option A is incorrect as taking metformin on an empty stomach may increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is unrelated as metformin does not interact with potassium-rich foods. Option D is also incorrect as metformin does not cause drowsiness, so there is no need to take it before bed.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.
What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer aspirin. Administering aspirin is a priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction because it helps reduce the risk of further clot formation. Aspirin is a common medication given during the early stages of a heart attack to prevent additional clotting. Administering nitroglycerin may also be indicated to help relieve chest pain by dilating blood vessels, but aspirin takes precedence due to its role in preventing clot progression. Administering morphine is not typically the first intervention in myocardial infarction as it can mask symptoms and delay other critical treatments. Surgery is not an immediate priority in the initial management of a myocardial infarction.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of furosemide. Which of the following findings indicates the nurse should increase the client's infusion rate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring an increase in diuresis. This finding suggests that the current diuretic therapy is not effective enough to manage the fluid overload, necessitating an increase in the infusion rate of furosemide. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the need for an increase in diuretic therapy in heart failure patients. Urine output of 20 mL/hr, a heart rate of 90/min, and a sodium level of 138 mEq/L are important parameters to monitor but do not specifically indicate the need to increase the infusion rate of furosemide.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client receiving warfarin, indicating a potential risk of blood clots. This value should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the warfarin dosage. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the effectiveness or safety of warfarin therapy in this scenario, making them less urgent to report.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bile-colored drainage from the surgical site can indicate a bile leak, which is an abnormal finding and should be reported. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges for a postoperative client. Serosanguineous wound drainage, which is a mix of blood and serum, is expected following a surgery like cholecystectomy. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not findings that require immediate reporting.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. An elevated temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) indicates a potential infection and should be reported to the provider. Elevated temperature postoperatively is often a sign of infection or inflammation, which can delay healing and increase the risk of complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider. Serous drainage at the incision site is expected in the initial postoperative period as part of the normal healing process, a heart rate of 92/min can be a normal response to surgery due to stress or pain, and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is also within normal limits for most clients.
A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Verifying the pH of the gastric aspirate is the correct action to take before administering an intermittent enteral feeding through an NG tube. This step ensures proper tube placement in the stomach, as the gastric aspirate should have an acidic pH (usually below 5). Heating the feeding solution, elevating the head of the bed, or flushing the tube with saline are not directly related to verifying tube placement and are not the immediate actions needed before administering the feeding.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client receiving warfarin, indicating a potential risk of blood clots. This value should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the warfarin dosage. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the effectiveness or safety of warfarin therapy in this scenario, making them less urgent to report.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Bile-colored drainage from the surgical site can indicate a bile leak, which is an abnormal finding and should be reported. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges for a postoperative client. Serosanguineous wound drainage, which is a mix of blood and serum, is expected following a surgery like cholecystectomy. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not findings that require immediate reporting.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. An elevated temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) indicates a potential infection and should be reported to the provider. Elevated temperature postoperatively is often a sign of infection or inflammation, which can delay healing and increase the risk of complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider. Serous drainage at the incision site is expected in the initial postoperative period as part of the normal healing process, a heart rate of 92/min can be a normal response to surgery due to stress or pain, and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is also within normal limits for most clients.
A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Verifying the pH of the gastric aspirate is the correct action to take before administering an intermittent enteral feeding through an NG tube. This step ensures proper tube placement in the stomach, as the gastric aspirate should have an acidic pH (usually below 5). Heating the feeding solution, elevating the head of the bed, or flushing the tube with saline are not directly related to verifying tube placement and are not the immediate actions needed before administering the feeding.
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