ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote airway clearance?
- A. Perform chest physiotherapy every 4 hours.
- B. Suction the client every 2 hours.
- C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is essential in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increased fluid intake helps thin secretions, making it easier for the client to clear their airways. Chest physiotherapy (Choice A) is more focused on mobilizing secretions and may not be suitable for all clients with pneumonia. Suctioning (Choice B) is indicated for clients who have excessive secretions that they cannot manage effectively themselves. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice D) is important for clients with pneumonia to maintain adequate oxygenation, but it does not directly promote airway clearance.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has Alzheimer's disease and demonstrates confusion and wandering behavior. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in seclusion when she is confused.
- B. Request a prescription for PRN restraints when the client is wandering.
- C. Dim the lighting in the client's room.
- D. Leave one side rail up on the client's bed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to dim the lighting in the client's room. Dim lighting can help reduce confusion and agitation in clients with Alzheimer's disease. Placing the client in seclusion (Choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to feelings of isolation and distress. Requesting PRN restraints (Choice B) should be avoided in clients with Alzheimer's as it can increase agitation and pose safety risks. Leaving one side rail up on the client's bed (Choice D) may not directly address the client's confusion and wandering behavior.
3. How should a healthcare professional assess for fluid overload in a patient with heart failure?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Check for edema
- C. Monitor blood pressure
- D. Check oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate way to assess fluid overload in patients with heart failure. In heart failure, the body retains excess fluid, leading to weight gain. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare professionals to track fluid retention accurately. Checking for edema (Choice B) is a valuable assessment technique, but it may not be as sensitive as monitoring daily weight. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is essential in managing heart failure, but it is not the most accurate way to assess fluid overload. Checking oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important to assess respiratory status but is not directly related to fluid overload in heart failure.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
- A. Lipsmacking
- B. Agranulocytosis
- C. Clang association
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.
5. When teaching a client about nutritional intake, what should be included?
- A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake.
- B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake.
- C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake.
- D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a client about nutritional intake, it is important to mention that carbohydrates should constitute at least 45% of their daily caloric intake for a balanced diet. This macronutrient provides energy and is essential for proper bodily functions. Choice B is incorrect because protein should typically account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is too low for the recommended carbohydrate intake, as it should be higher at 45%. Choice D is incorrect as protein intake should generally be around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.
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