Free ATI RN Exit practice for ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 (ATI RN). Answer 83 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress trac
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to place the client in a high Fowler's position during enteral feedings. This position helps prevent aspiration by promoting the downward flow of the feeding and reducing the risk of regurgitation into the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because flushing the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride before feedings is not directly related to preventing aspiration. Choice C is incorrect because the rate of administration does not directly impact the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect because warming the formula does not specifically address the prevention of aspiration during enteral feedings.
A nurse in a pediatric clinic is teaching a newly hired nurse about the varicella roster. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Children with varicella are contagious until the vesicles crust over, which is important for preventing transmission. Choice B is incorrect as varicella and herpes zoster are caused by different viruses, so the varicella vaccine is given to prevent varicella, not herpes zoster. Choice C is incorrect because varicella is primarily spread through respiratory secretions, so airborne precautions are recommended, not droplet precautions. Choice D is incorrect as children with varicella are contagious even before the first vesicle eruption, not just 4 days before.
A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Choice A, avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight, is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice B, taking the medication with a meal, is not a specific requirement for furosemide administration. Choice D, limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day, is not the correct advice as furosemide is a diuretic that often requires increased fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving desmopressin. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'The client's urine output decreases.' Desmopressin is used to treat diabetes insipidus by reducing excessive urine output. Therefore, a decrease in urine output indicates that the medication is effectively controlling the symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because desmopressin primarily affects urine output, not blood pressure, heart rate, or urine specific gravity.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
A nurse is assessing a school-age child with a urinary tract infection. Which symptom should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Enuresis is a common symptom of urinary tract infections in school-age children. It is often a presenting symptom due to irritation of the bladder. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is more indicative of conditions like nephrotic syndrome or renal disorders. Decreased frequency of urination (Choice B) is not typically associated with urinary tract infections. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a common symptom of urinary tract infections but may occur due to other reasons like gastrointestinal infections.
What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions as it helps reverse the symptoms rapidly by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. Antihistamines (Choice B) may help with mild allergic reactions but are not effective for severe cases. Corticosteroids (Choice C) are used to reduce inflammation and are typically not the first-line treatment for acute severe allergic reactions. Administering oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases, but epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction symptoms.
What is the most important nursing action for a patient experiencing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering anticoagulants is the most crucial nursing action for a patient experiencing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Encouraging ambulation, applying compression stockings, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important interventions in managing DVT, but administering anticoagulants takes priority as it directly targets the clotting process and prevents clot progression.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement the nurse should include is to take one nitroglycerin sublingual tablet every 5 minutes until the pain is relieved, up to three doses. This dosing regimen is important to manage angina attacks effectively. Option A is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be taken with water. Option B is incorrect as nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original container at room temperature. Option D is incorrect because there is no specific instruction to avoid foods high in sodium while taking nitroglycerin sublingual tablets.
A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction that occurred 3 days ago. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After an acute myocardial infarction, it is important to involve the client in cardiac rehabilitation to help them recover and manage their condition effectively. Performing an ECG every 12 hours is not necessary unless there are specific indications for it. Placing the client in a supine position may not be ideal as it can increase venous return, potentially worsening cardiac workload. Drawing troponin levels every 4 hours is excessive and not recommended as troponin levels usually peak within 24-48 hours post-MI and then gradually decline.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Heart rate of 88/min.' A heart rate of 88/min in a postoperative client can be an early sign of bleeding or other complications. It is essential to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate immediate concern. A blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg is normal, urinary output of 30 mL/hr may be adequate depending on the client's fluid status, and a hematocrit of 42% is within the acceptable range for a postoperative client. Therefore, they do not require immediate reporting.
The healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Thrombophlebitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of a vein, which increases the risk of blood clots. The use of oral contraceptives further elevates the risk of clot formation, making them contraindicated in individuals with thrombophlebitis. Hyperthyroidism (Choice A), diverticulosis (Choice C), and hypocalcemia (Choice D) are not contraindications to the use of oral contraceptives.
While caring for a client receiving hemodialysis, which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care when caring for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial to monitor for any signs of bleeding or complications at the access site. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not necessary unless specified for certain medications. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for hypotension (Choice C) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension related to hemodialysis. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not typically indicated unless there is a specific medical indication for prophylactic antibiotic use.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for ceftriaxone. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication to this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Penicillin allergy. Penicillin allergy is a contraindication for ceftriaxone because both medications are beta-lactam antibiotics. Seizure disorder (choice A), hypertension (choice B), and hyperlipidemia (choice D) are not contraindications for ceftriaxone and do not directly affect the use of this antibiotic.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with COPD is to encourage the client to increase physical activity. Increased physical activity helps manage COPD symptoms by improving lung function and preventing deconditioning. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not recommended for COPD as it can worsen breathing difficulties. Limiting fluid intake to prevent fluid overload is not typically necessary in COPD unless the client has comorbid conditions that require fluid restriction. Administering high-flow oxygen via mask may be necessary for COPD clients with severe hypoxemia, but it is not the initial action for planning care.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is the priority action before administering an enteral feeding through an NG tube. This position helps prevent aspiration by promoting proper flow and digestion of the feeding. Checking the residual volume, flushing the tube, and warming the formula are important steps but come after ensuring the client is in the correct position to minimize the risk of complications.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. The client reports pain of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take when a client reports severe postoperative pain of 8 out of 10 is to administer oxycodone 10 mg PO. Oxycodone is a potent analgesic that is more effective in managing severe pain compared to ibuprofen, making choice A incorrect. Repositioning the client to the unaffected side or applying a cold compress may provide some comfort but are not the priority interventions for severe postoperative pain, making choices C and D less appropriate.
A client is being discharged with a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Take this medication at the same time every day.' It is crucial to take levothyroxine at the same time each day to maintain consistent thyroid hormone levels. Choice A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, usually in the morning. Choice C is important but not specific to the administration of levothyroxine. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine.
How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor the IV site. Potassium can be irritating to the veins and may cause phlebitis or infiltration. Monitoring the IV site allows early detection of any potential complications. Checking urine output (Choice A) is important to assess kidney function but is not directly related to monitoring IV potassium. Blood pressure (Choice B) and respiratory rate (Choice D) are essential vital signs to monitor in general patient care but are not specific to monitoring IV potassium administration.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has chronic kidney disease. The client's potassium level is 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used to treat hyperkalemia by promoting the excretion of potassium. Choice A, administering sodium bicarbonate, is incorrect as it is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Choice C, administering calcium gluconate, is incorrect as it is used to treat hypocalcemia, not hyperkalemia. Choice D, administering calcium carbonate, is incorrect as it is used to treat conditions like osteoporosis and indigestion, not hyperkalemia.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber helps alleviate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome by promoting regular bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as increasing intake of milk products may exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who are lactose intolerant. Choice C is incorrect as fructose corn syrup may worsen symptoms due to its high fructose content, which can be poorly absorbed in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as increasing foods high in gluten may be problematic for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who have gluten sensitivity or celiac disease.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for the past 12 months. The nurse notes a lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. Which of the following orders from the provider should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer the medication (Choice D) since the lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range of 0.6-1.2 mEq/L. Withholding the next dose (Choice A) or increasing the dosage (Choice B) is not necessary as the current level is appropriate. Discontinuing the medication (Choice C) is not warranted based on the given lithium level. It is crucial to maintain therapeutic levels to ensure the medication's effectiveness without causing toxicity.
A nurse is preparing to mix NPH and regular insulin in the same syringe. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When mixing NPH and regular insulin in the same syringe, the nurse should first inject air into the NPH insulin vial. This action prevents contamination by allowing an easier withdrawal of the correct dose of NPH insulin after withdrawing the regular insulin. Withdrawing the prescribed dose of regular insulin (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the initial step of injecting air into the NPH vial. Similarly, withdrawing the prescribed dose of NPH insulin (Choice C) is incorrect as it skips the crucial first step. Mixing the two insulins in separate syringes (Choice D) is not ideal since combining them in one syringe is a common practice to reduce the number of injections for the patient.
Which lab value is essential for a patient receiving warfarin therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor the INR (International Normalized Ratio) for a patient receiving warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B), potassium levels (choice C), or platelet count (choice D) is not specifically essential for patients on warfarin therapy and does not provide direct information on the drug's anticoagulant effects.
A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to move the probe site every 3 hours. This action helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures accurate readings. Placing the infant under a radiant warmer (Choice A) is not necessary for pulse oximetry monitoring. Heating the skin before placing the probe (Choice C) can potentially cause burns in infants. Placing a sensor on the index finger (Choice D) is not the standard practice for continuous pulse oximetry in infants.
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice. This option is suitable for a client with chronic pancreatitis as it is a low-fat, high-protein meal. Clients with pancreatitis should avoid high-fat foods like creamer, margarine, and avocados, making options A, B, and D incorrect choices.
A client expresses fear of surgery. Which response should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client expresses fear of surgery, it is essential for the nurse to acknowledge their feelings and ask open-ended questions. This response shows empathy, validates the client's emotions, and encourages them to express their concerns further. Explaining the risks of the surgery in detail (Choice A) may increase the client's anxiety. Simply stating that many clients feel anxious before surgery (Choice B) does not address the client's specific fears. While reassuring the client about the surgical team's experience (Choice C) is important, it may not directly alleviate the client's fear.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water before breakfast to prevent esophageal irritation and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate is not associated with causing drowsiness. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate can be taken with or without food, so avoiding dairy products is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended time to remain upright after taking alendronate is 30 minutes to 1 hour, not just 30 minutes.
A client has a central venous catheter. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent an air embolism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to prevent an air embolism in a client with a central venous catheter is to have the client perform the Valsalva maneuver while the catheter is removed. This maneuver helps to close the airway and prevent air from entering the bloodstream. Keeping the catheter clamped at all times (Choice A) is not necessary and may lead to clot formation. Using a non-coring needle (Choice C) is important for accessing the catheter but does not specifically prevent air embolism. Flushing the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice D) helps maintain patency but does not directly prevent air embolism.
A nurse is assessing a client who has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Tachycardia. In clients with hyperthyroidism, tachycardia is a common finding due to the increased metabolic rate. Weight loss and heat intolerance are also expected due to the elevated metabolism. Choices A, B, and C (Weight gain, dry skin, cold intolerance) are not typical findings in hyperthyroidism, as the condition is associated with an overactive thyroid gland leading to an increase in metabolic functions.
What is the primary purpose of administering an antiemetic?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'To reduce nausea and vomiting.' Antiemetics are medications used to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. While they may indirectly help with appetite by reducing the unpleasant symptoms that can lead to decreased food intake, their primary purpose is not to increase appetite (Choice B). Choice C, 'To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy,' is partly correct as antiemetics are commonly used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea, but this is not their exclusive purpose. Choice D, 'To treat allergic reactions,' is incorrect as antiemetics are not primarily used for treating allergic reactions.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. A fundus that is deviated to the right may indicate a full bladder, which should be addressed postpartum. Choice A is incorrect because red lochia with small clots is expected during the early postpartum period. Choice B is incorrect as the fundus should be firm and midline, not at the umbilicus. Choice D is incorrect as perineal pain and swelling are common postpartum findings that do not require immediate reporting to the provider.
A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.
A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.
A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.
A client is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take for a client at risk for developing DVT is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation and reducing the risk of DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of DVT due to immobility. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and is contraindicated in DVT prevention. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed (Choice D) is a treatment for DVT, it is not a preventive measure for a client at risk.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with chronic pancreatitis should avoid fried foods because they are high in fat, which can exacerbate symptoms and lead to further complications. Baked chicken (choice A), grilled salmon (choice B), and steamed broccoli (choice C) are generally healthier options and can be included in a low-fat diet suitable for individuals with chronic pancreatitis.
A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What question should the nurse ask?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Exploring strategies to ignore the hallucinations can help clients manage symptoms.
A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Vision changes. Vision changes are a classic sign of digoxin toxicity and should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. A heart rate of 78/min, a respiratory rate of 16/min, and a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg are within normal ranges and are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, they would not be the priority findings to report in this situation.
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to rotate the patch site each time they apply it. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and ensures the effectiveness of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Applying the patch to the same site each time can lead to skin irritation and decreased patch efficacy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to the upper arm, removing it before showering, and placing it on the lower abdomen do not promote proper rotation of patch sites, which is essential for optimal outcomes.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to use a moisture barrier ointment. This intervention helps protect the skin and promote healing in clients with stage 3 pressure injuries. Cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily (Choice A) can be too harsh and may delay healing by damaging the surrounding skin. Irrigating the wound with hydrogen peroxide (Choice B) is not recommended as it can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. While repositioning the client every 4 hours (Choice C) is an essential intervention in preventing pressure injuries, it is not directly related to the care of an existing stage 3 pressure injury.
A client is postoperative following cataract surgery. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client postoperative following cataract surgery is to avoid bending at the waist. Bending at the waist can increase intraocular pressure, which is not recommended after cataract surgery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because lying flat for 24 hours after surgery may not be necessary, wearing an eye patch at night for a week is not a standard postoperative instruction for cataract surgery, and sleeping on the affected side may not necessarily reduce discomfort and can increase pressure on the eye.
A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a client with a surgical wound. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to maintain the sterile field?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to maintain a sterile field is to avoid reaching over it. This prevents contamination of the sterile environment by reducing the risk of unintentionally dropping microorganisms from non-sterile areas onto the sterile field. Opening sterile packages using the flap closest to your body first (choice A) is a good practice but not directly related to maintaining the sterile field. Donning sterile gloves before opening the sterile package (choice B) is crucial for maintaining sterility but not specific to maintaining the sterile field. Placing sterile items at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field (choice D) is important to prevent accidental contamination, but it is not the primary action to maintain the sterile field.
Which diagnostic test is used to confirm tuberculosis (TB) infection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Mantoux skin test, also known as the Tuberculin Skin Test (TST), is used to confirm tuberculosis (TB) infection. This test involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin protein derivative under the top layer of the skin and then evaluating the immune system's response to the protein. A positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Chest X-rays are used to detect abnormalities in the lungs caused by TB but are not confirmatory. Sputum culture is used to identify the presence of TB bacteria in the sputum. MRIs are not typically used as a primary diagnostic tool for TB.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A nonstress test measures the fetal heart's response to movement, helping to assess fetal well-being. Choice A is incorrect as the duration of the test can vary, and it is not always precisely 30 minutes. Choice B is incorrect as drinking water is not necessary for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as having a full bladder is not required for this test.
What is the correct method of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct method of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes is to administer it subcutaneously. Insulin is typically injected into the fatty tissue just below the skin, allowing for a slow and consistent absorption into the bloodstream. Administering insulin intramuscularly (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to unpredictable absorption rates and potential complications. Administering insulin intravenously (Choice C) is only done in specific medical settings and not for routine diabetes management. Administering insulin orally (Choice D) is ineffective as the stomach acid would break down the insulin before it can be absorbed.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 75 mm/hr indicates inflammation, which is common in rheumatoid arthritis. Elevated ESR levels are often seen in inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Options A, B, and C are within the normal range and are not typically indicative of active inflammation associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated ESR level to the provider for further evaluation and management.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.
What is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is crucial in rapidly correcting dehydration and restoring fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids may not be sufficient in cases of severe dehydration where intravenous rehydration is needed. Monitoring electrolytes is important but administering fluids takes precedence in severe dehydration. Performing a neurological exam is not the primary intervention for severe dehydration.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because contractions every 5 minutes that last 30 seconds indicate that the rate of infusion should be increased. This pattern suggests weak contractions or intervals that are too far apart, requiring an adjustment to improve labor progress. Option A is incorrect as a low urine output is not directly related to the need for an increase in the oxytocin infusion rate. Option B, Montevideo units consistently at 300 mm Hg, is incorrect because it is a measure of intrauterine pressure and does not determine the need for an increase in oxytocin infusion. Option C, FHR pattern with absent variability, is incorrect as it may indicate fetal distress but does not specifically relate to the need for adjusting the oxytocin infusion rate.
Which laboratory test is essential for monitoring renal function in a patient with chronic kidney disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) and creatinine levels in a patient with chronic kidney disease. These tests provide crucial information about renal function. Checking blood glucose levels (Choice B) is important for monitoring diabetes, not renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels (Choice C) helps assess anemia, not specifically renal function. Monitoring liver enzymes (Choice D) is relevant for assessing liver function, not renal function.
A client scheduled for a thoracentesis requires assistance from a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to assist the client to a sitting position. Placing the client in a sitting position helps facilitate easier access during the thoracentesis procedure by allowing gravity to assist in the removal of pleural fluid. Placing the client in a prone, supine, or lateral position would not provide the optimal positioning needed for a thoracentesis and could make the procedure more challenging or uncomfortable for the client.
A nurse is preparing discharge information for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following resources should the nurse provide to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Food exchange lists from the American Diabetes Association are valuable resources for individuals with diabetes as they provide specific guidance on meal planning and portion control, which are crucial for managing blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because personal blogs may not always provide accurate or evidence-based information. Choice B is incorrect as food label recommendations, while important, may not offer the structured guidance needed for meal planning in diabetes. Choice C is also incorrect as medication information is different from dietary guidance needed for diabetes management.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for potassium chloride. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia. Before administering potassium chloride, which is used to treat low potassium levels, the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and potential adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the need for potassium chloride administration.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of urinary incontinence. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, dark-colored urine. Dark-colored urine can indicate various issues such as dehydration, liver problems, or blood in the urine, which could be concerning and require further evaluation by the provider. Choices A, B, and C are not necessarily findings that would need immediate reporting to the provider. A urine output of 50 mL in 2 hours might be low but could be influenced by various factors and might not always require immediate action. The presence of an indwelling urinary catheter is a known history and not a new finding. Frequent urination at night could be a symptom related to various conditions but may not be an urgent concern unless accompanied by other significant symptoms.
What is the initial nursing action for a patient presenting with chest pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct initial nursing action for a patient presenting with chest pain is to administer aspirin. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of further clot formation in patients experiencing chest pain, as it has antiplatelet effects. Repositioning the patient, providing pain relief, or preparing for surgery are not the first-line interventions for chest pain. Repositioning the patient may be necessary to ensure comfort and safety, pain relief can be provided after further assessment and diagnostic tests, and preparing for surgery would only be considered after a thorough evaluation and confirmation of the need for surgical intervention.
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Chlamydia is the correct answer. It is a sexually transmitted infection that is nationally notifiable, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to the state health department. This is crucial for disease surveillance, monitoring, and implementing public health interventions. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has osteoporosis about preventing fractures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction the nurse should include is to perform weight-bearing exercises regularly. Weight-bearing exercises help maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures in clients with osteoporosis. Increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice A) is also beneficial for bone health. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (Choice B) is incorrect as these exercises are essential for strengthening bones. Avoiding calcium supplements (Choice D) may not be necessary if the client's dietary intake is inadequate.
What is the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve airflow, which is crucial in managing the acute respiratory distress in asthma. Corticosteroids may be used subsequently to reduce inflammation, but in the acute phase, bronchodilators take precedence. Providing supplemental oxygen is important but may not address the underlying bronchoconstriction characteristic of an asthma attack. Starting IV fluids is not a priority in managing an acute asthma attack unless indicated for specific reasons such as dehydration.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After childbirth, it is normal for the fundus to be firm and at the level of the umbilicus, heart rate to be around 80/min, and blood pressure to be slightly elevated. However, a constant trickle of bright red blood from the vagina is concerning as it could indicate postpartum hemorrhage. This finding should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within expected postpartum parameters and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following items should the nurse offer to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Chicken broth. A clear liquid diet includes clear fluids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Chicken broth is allowed on a clear liquid diet as it is a clear liquid, while tomato soup, apple juice, and cranberry juice are not clear liquids. Tomato soup is a thicker substance and not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Apple juice and cranberry juice are also not clear liquids because they contain pulp and are not transparent like broth.
A client with heart failure is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing fluid overload?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with heart failure, decreased urinary output is a classic sign of fluid overload. The kidneys try to compensate for the increased volume by reducing urine output, leading to fluid retention. A dry, hacking cough (choice A) is more indicative of heart failure complications like pulmonary edema. Bounding peripheral pulses (choice B) are a sign of increased volume, but not specifically fluid overload. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours (choice D) is not indicative of fluid overload but rather rapid fluid loss.
A client with Parkinson's disease is receiving physical therapy. Which statement by the client indicates the need for a referral to physical therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because freezing of feet while walking is a sign of impaired mobility, indicating the need for physical therapy in clients with Parkinson's disease. Choices A, B, and D are symptoms commonly associated with Parkinson's disease but do not specifically indicate the need for immediate referral to physical therapy.
A patient is diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the affected extremity is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, thereby preventing further complications such as pulmonary embolism. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and lead to serious consequences. While ambulation is important, in DVT, early ambulation without elevation can potentially dislodge the clot. Warm compresses can increase blood flow to the area and worsen the condition by promoting clot dislodgement.
A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Increased urine output is a key finding in clients with diabetes insipidus due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Weight gain (choice A) is not expected in diabetes insipidus as it is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination leading to fluid loss. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with diabetes insipidus.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A gastric residual of 150 mL may indicate delayed gastric emptying and should be reported to the provider.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has Alzheimer's disease and demonstrates confusion and wandering behavior. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to dim the lighting in the client's room. Dim lighting can help reduce confusion and agitation in clients with Alzheimer's disease. Placing the client in seclusion (Choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to feelings of isolation and distress. Requesting PRN restraints (Choice B) should be avoided in clients with Alzheimer's as it can increase agitation and pose safety risks. Leaving one side rail up on the client's bed (Choice D) may not directly address the client's confusion and wandering behavior.
A nurse is preparing to administer packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer packed RBCs is to check the client's identification using two identifiers. This step is crucial to ensure that the right blood is given to the right client, preventing any transfusion errors. Priming the IV tubing with dextrose 5% in water and administering the blood through a 22-gauge catheter are important steps but should come after confirming the client's identity. Ensuring the client's consent is on file is also important but is not the immediate priority when preparing to administer packed RBCs.
A client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because the client should drink a sugar solution for a glucose challenge test, which is part of the nonstress test protocol during pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because adequate hydration is generally recommended before the test. Choice C is incorrect as the nonstress test monitors the baby's heart rate in response to its own movements, not contractions. Choice D is incorrect as the nonstress test does not assess fetal lung maturity.
What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected DVT because it helps prevent further clot formation and complications. Applying compression stockings (choice B) can be a preventive measure but is not the primary intervention for treating DVT. Encouraging ambulation (choice C) is beneficial for preventing DVT but is not the immediate intervention for a suspected case. Monitoring oxygen saturation (choice D) is important for assessing respiratory function but is not the primary intervention for DVT treatment.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.
A client in active labor is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because a baseline FHR of 170/min indicates fetal tachycardia, which needs further evaluation. Choice A about contractions lasting 80 seconds is within the normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are generally considered benign and do not require immediate reporting. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), falls within normal limits for a laboring client and does not warrant immediate reporting.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, which can be a side effect of methotrexate and should be reported. Elevated white blood cell count (choice A), platelet count (choice B), or normal hemoglobin level (choice C) are not directly related to methotrexate therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.
A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Dark, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious side effect of enoxaparin that requires immediate medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the adverse effects of enoxaparin, so they do not take precedence over the urgent concern of gastrointestinal bleeding.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or malnutrition, which are critical concerns for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the provider. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) can be managed by adjusting TPN components, WBC count (Choice C) and a slightly elevated temperature (Choice D) are not directly related to TPN administration and may not require immediate intervention.
A client in active labor is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because a baseline FHR of 170/min indicates fetal tachycardia, which needs further evaluation. Choice A about contractions lasting 80 seconds is within the normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are generally considered benign and do not require immediate reporting. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), falls within normal limits for a laboring client and does not warrant immediate reporting.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, which can be a side effect of methotrexate and should be reported. Elevated white blood cell count (choice A), platelet count (choice B), or normal hemoglobin level (choice C) are not directly related to methotrexate therapy for rheumatoid arthritis.
A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Dark, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious side effect of enoxaparin that requires immediate medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the adverse effects of enoxaparin, so they do not take precedence over the urgent concern of gastrointestinal bleeding.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or malnutrition, which are critical concerns for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Therefore, the nurse should report this finding to the provider. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) can be managed by adjusting TPN components, WBC count (Choice C) and a slightly elevated temperature (Choice D) are not directly related to TPN administration and may not require immediate intervention.
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