ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administer bronchodilators
- B. Provide supplemental oxygen
- C. Start IV fluids
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, bronchodilators like albuterol are crucial to help dilate the airways and improve breathing. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority intervention. Starting IV fluids (Choice C) and monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the most critical interventions during an acute asthma attack.
2. A nurse is reviewing the results of an arterial blood gas analysis of a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which of the following results should the nurse expect?
- A. PaO2 of 95 mm Hg
- B. PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg
- C. HCO3 of 24 mEq/L
- D. pH level of 7.35
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, there is impaired gas exchange, leading to retention of carbon dioxide (CO2) and subsequent respiratory acidosis. A PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg is higher than the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) and is indicative of respiratory acidosis in COPD. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with COPD. PaO2 may be decreased, HCO3 may be elevated to compensate for acidosis, and pH may be lower than 7.35 due to respiratory acidosis in COPD.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants
- B. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
- C. Scant urine output
- D. Serosanguineous wound drainage
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Serosanguineous wound drainage.' Serosanguineous drainage should be reported in postoperative clients as it may indicate complications such as infection or impaired wound healing. Options A, B, and C are expected findings in a postoperative client. Bowel sounds present in all four quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal function, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range, and scant urine output may be expected initially due to factors like anesthesia and fluid shifts postoperatively.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hypokalemia, as potassium is essential for proper muscle function. Diarrhea (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Hypertension (choice C) is not typically a direct result of low potassium levels. Bradycardia (choice D) is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
5. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient with heart failure?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor input and output
- C. Check for edema
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In patients with heart failure, monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method for assessing fluid balance. Weight gain can indicate fluid retention, a common issue in heart failure patients. Monitoring input and output (B) is essential but may not always accurately reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (C) is important as it can indicate fluid accumulation, but daily weight monitoring is more precise. Monitoring blood pressure (D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.
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