Free ATI RN Exit practice for ATI Exit Exam RN (ATI RN). Answer 84 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking on Nursing Eli
Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving digoxin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in a patient receiving digoxin. Hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin, leading to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent toxicity. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B), calcium levels (Choice C), and magnesium levels (Choice D) are also important aspects of patient care, but potassium levels are most critical in patients on digoxin therapy.
A nurse is assessing a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left lower extremity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Redness and warmth are classic signs of inflammation, which are commonly seen in clients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). These findings indicate increased blood flow and temperature in the affected area. Pain in the right lower extremity (Choice A) is not expected in a client with DVT affecting the left lower extremity. Cold skin (Choice B) is not a typical finding in DVT; instead, warmth is more indicative of inflammation. Shiny skin (Choice D) is not a common characteristic of DVT; rather, the skin may appear red, swollen, and warm due to the inflammatory process.
What is the priority nursing action for a patient with confusion post-surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer oxygen. Post-surgery, confusion in a patient could be due to hypoxia, a condition where the body is deprived of an adequate oxygen supply. Administering oxygen helps address hypoxia promptly, improving oxygen levels in the body and potentially resolving the confusion. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and performing a neurological exam may be important interventions but addressing hypoxia with oxygen administration takes precedence as the priority action.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypercholesterolemia. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Choose foods low in trans fats.' Trans fats are known to increase cholesterol levels, so avoiding foods high in trans fats is essential in managing hypercholesterolemia. Option A, increasing intake of red meat, and option B, consuming foods high in saturated fats, can worsen cholesterol levels as they are sources of unhealthy fats. Option D, limiting intake of vegetables and fruits, is incorrect as they are part of a heart-healthy diet and should be encouraged for individuals with hypercholesterolemia.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The adhesive bandage should be removed 3 days after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy to allow the incision to heal properly. Choice A is incorrect as the client should start with a clear liquid diet and advance to a regular diet as tolerated. Choice C is incorrect because the client should gradually increase activity levels as tolerated. Choice D is incorrect as the client should avoid tub baths and opt for showers to prevent infection and promote healing.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings is an indication for hemodialysis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min indicates severe kidney impairment and the need for hemodialysis. The other choices, such as BUN 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate the need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory data for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Increased creatinine. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to filter waste effectively, leading to a buildup of creatinine in the blood. This results in increased creatinine levels in laboratory tests. Choice B, increased hemoglobin, is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice C, increased bicarbonate, is also not a common finding in chronic kidney disease; in fact, metabolic acidosis with decreased bicarbonate levels is more common. Choice D, increased calcium, is not expected in chronic kidney disease; instead, calcium levels may be low due to impaired kidney function.
What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to recheck blood sugar levels in 15 minutes. This intervention is crucial to ensure that the hypoglycemia has been effectively corrected after the initial treatment. Administering IV fluids may be necessary in cases of severe dehydration but is not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. Checking blood sugar levels is important, but the primary intervention should focus on treating the low blood sugar levels first, which is done by providing oral glucose. However, the most critical step after providing initial treatment is to recheck blood sugar levels to confirm that they have improved to safe levels.
What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia is to administer IV dextrose. This intervention is necessary to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in critical situations. Administering oral glucose may not be effective in severe cases as the patient may be unable to consume it. Monitoring blood sugar levels and rechecking blood sugar in 15 minutes are important steps but not the initial best intervention for severe hypoglycemia.
A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Warmth and redness in the calf are indicative of a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication post-surgery that requires immediate attention. Reporting this finding promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a postoperative client and do not indicate a potentially life-threatening condition like DVT.
What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy is crucial in ensuring that the patient receives an adequate supply of oxygen to meet the body's demands. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) may be beneficial in specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD but may not be the primary intervention in all cases of respiratory distress. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) may be necessary in cases of dehydration or shock but would not directly address respiratory distress. Providing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) can help mobilize secretions in conditions like cystic fibrosis but is not the first-line intervention for respiratory distress.
What is the initial action for a healthcare provider when a patient presents with shortness of breath?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is the initial action for a healthcare provider when a patient presents with shortness of breath because it helps alleviate the patient's symptoms by improving oxygenation. Providing oxygen takes precedence over other actions such as repositioning the patient, checking for abnormal breath sounds, or assessing oxygen saturation. While these actions are important, ensuring the patient has an adequate oxygen supply is crucial in the initial management of shortness of breath.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to promote airway clearance?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is essential to promote airway clearance in pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Suctioning every 2 hours may be too frequent and can lead to airway trauma and irritation. Chest physiotherapy is not typically indicated for pneumonia unless there are specific complications. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary to maintain oxygen saturation but does not directly promote airway clearance.
A nurse is calculating a client's expected date of delivery. The client's last menstrual period began on April 12. Using Nagele's rule, what date should the nurse determine to be the client's expected delivery date?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nagele's rule is a method used to calculate the expected delivery date by subtracting 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period and adding 7 days. In this case, April 12 minus 3 months is January 12, plus 7 days gives January 19. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the application of Nagele's rule and are incorrect.
While caring for a client with an arterial line, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Obtaining arterial blood gases is a crucial nursing action when caring for a client with an arterial line. This procedure helps assess the client's oxygenation status and acid-base balance accurately. Leveling the transducer with the client's phlebotomy site (A) is important for accurate pressure measurements, but it is not the primary action in this scenario. Flushing the arterial line every 8 hours (B) is a routine maintenance procedure and not the immediate priority. Keeping the client's hand elevated above the heart level (D) is a good practice to prevent swelling, but it is not directly related to the arterial line care in this case.
A nurse is assessing a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Burning sensation in the chest. A burning sensation in the chest is a classic symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Abdominal distention (Choice A) is not typically associated with GERD; it is more commonly seen in conditions like bowel obstruction. Constipation (Choice C) is not a hallmark symptom of GERD, as it is more related to gastrointestinal motility issues. Frequent belching (Choice D) can occur with GERD, but it is not as specific or characteristic as the burning sensation in the chest.
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is a finding that the nurse should report to the provider when caring for a client with heart failure receiving digoxin. Digoxin can cause hypotension, so a low blood pressure reading should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 60/min is considered normal, but any further decrease should be monitored. A serum potassium level of 4 mEq/L is also within the normal range. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is typically considered normal as well.
What is the best intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Applying compression stockings can help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of clot formation. Encouraging ambulation is beneficial for overall circulation but may not be sufficient to treat DVT. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important, but it is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Furosemide can cause low potassium levels, and clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.
A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. The nonstress test takes about 10 minutes and evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as a full bladder is not necessary for this test. Choice D is incorrect as blood glucose checking is not typically part of a nonstress test.
What is the best method to assess pain in a non-verbal patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to observe for facial expressions when assessing pain in a non-verbal patient. Facial expressions can provide vital clues about the patient's pain level and discomfort. Choices B and C, observing for restlessness and sweating, can be less specific and may indicate other issues besides pain. Choice D, checking for non-verbal cues, is too broad and does not specify the crucial aspect of focusing on facial expressions.
A nurse is preparing discharge information for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which resource should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Food exchange lists for meal planning from the American Diabetes Association. Food exchange lists provide structured meal planning for individuals with diabetes, helping them make healthier food choices and manage their condition effectively. Choice A is incorrect because personal blogs may not provide accurate and reliable information on managing diabetes and medications. Choice C is incorrect as diabetes medication information may not be directly related to meal planning and dietary management. Choice D is incorrect because food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine may not specifically cater to the dietary needs and meal planning guidelines recommended for individuals with diabetes.
A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which of the following instructions should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid drinking fluids with meals. This is because consuming fluids while eating can exacerbate reflux symptoms by increasing stomach distension and contributing to the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus. Option A is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed can help prevent reflux during sleep, not while drinking fluids. Option C is incorrect as consuming three large meals a day can worsen GERD symptoms due to increased gastric distension. Option D is incorrect as lying down after eating can also worsen GERD symptoms by promoting the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel-training program following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering a rectal suppository 30 minutes before scheduled defecation times is essential in a bowel-training program following a spinal cord injury. The suppository helps stimulate bowel movements and aids in establishing a regular bowel routine. Encouraging a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 ml per day (Choice A) might be beneficial for bowel function, but it is not specific to the bowel-training program. Increasing the intake of refined grains in the diet (Choice B) is not necessary and could potentially lead to constipation rather than improving bowel movements. Providing a cold drink prior to defecation (Choice C) may not directly contribute to the effectiveness of the bowel-training program compared to the use of a rectal suppository.
What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing hypoxia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best intervention for a patient experiencing hypoxia is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels in the blood, addressing the underlying cause of hypoxia. Repositioning the patient, providing humidified air, and chest physiotherapy may be beneficial in certain situations but are not the primary interventions for hypoxia. Administering oxygen is crucial to quickly alleviate hypoxia and support the patient's respiratory function.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should implement is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Massaging the client's legs may dislodge a clot and is contraindicated in this situation (choice A). Encouraging bed rest may increase the risk of DVT due to prolonged immobility (choice B). While administering anticoagulants is a common treatment for DVT, in this case, the question is about preventive measures, and using sequential compression devices is a non-pharmacological approach.
A client who has a new prescription for prednisone is being discharged. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Clients taking prednisone should avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection due to immunosuppression. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should be taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice B is incorrect as prednisone is usually prescribed for a specific duration and not for life. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, which may not always align with symptom resolution.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing dysphagia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with dysphagia is to administer thickened liquids. Thickened liquids help prevent aspiration, which is a common risk for clients with swallowing difficulties. Providing small bites of food (choice B) can help, but the priority is to modify the liquid consistency. Encouraging the client to eat quickly (choice C) is not recommended as it may increase the risk of aspiration and fatigue. Having the client lie supine after meals (choice D) can actually increase the risk of aspiration, especially in clients with dysphagia.
A client who is 2 hours postoperative following a kidney biopsy is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is below the normal range and should be reported following a kidney biopsy to check for bleeding. Decreased hemoglobin levels could indicate internal bleeding, which is a significant concern postoperatively. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits and do not require immediate reporting. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr is also within the acceptable range for a postoperative client. A respiratory rate of 16/min and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg are both normal findings postoperatively.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the right tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Pallor of the affected extremity could indicate impaired circulation, such as compromised blood flow to the area, which is crucial to monitor postoperatively. This finding suggests potential vascular compromise or decreased blood supply to the extremity, which is a serious concern and should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period and does not necessarily indicate a complication requiring immediate provider notification. Capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds) and indicates adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 88/min is also within the normal range for an adult and is not typically a cause for immediate concern postoperatively.
A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Raynaud's disease is a condition where the blood vessels narrow in response to cold or stress, leading to reduced blood flow to certain areas of the body, usually the fingers and toes. Stress management helps reduce triggers for Raynaud's disease by minimizing emotional stress, which can trigger vasospasms. Choice B is incorrect as maintaining a warm temperature, rather than a cool one, is recommended for individuals with Raynaud's disease to prevent triggering vasospasms. Choice C is incorrect because epinephrine is not typically used to manage Raynaud's disease, as it can further constrict blood vessels. Choice D is incorrect as glucocorticoid steroids are not a first-line treatment for Raynaud's disease.
Which lab value should be monitored in a patient on digoxin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor digoxin levels in a patient on digoxin. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, and monitoring its levels in the blood is crucial to ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice A) is important due to the potential of digoxin-induced hypokalemia, but the primary focus should be on monitoring digoxin levels. Monitoring calcium levels (Choice B) and sodium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to digoxin therapy and are not the primary lab values of concern when administering digoxin.
What is the best position for a patient in respiratory distress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best position for a patient in respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and eases breathing by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position (choice B) where the patient's feet are higher than the head is not recommended in respiratory distress as it may cause increased pressure on the chest and reduced lung expansion. The prone position (choice C) lying on the stomach is also not optimal for respiratory distress as it can further compromise breathing. The supine position (choice D) lying flat on the back is not ideal as it may impair breathing by restricting chest expansion.
A client who has glaucoma and a new prescription for timolol eyedrops is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because placing pressure on the corner of the eye after using the drops helps in better absorption. Option A is incorrect because eye drops should be placed in the conjunctival sac, not the center of the eye. Option C is incorrect because tears turning red is not an expected outcome of using timolol eyedrops. Option D is incorrect because timolol eyedrops should not appear cloudy.
A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A is the correct answer because consuming a snack when the blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL helps prevent hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes mellitus. Choice B is incorrect because taking insulin when blood glucose is high (above 200 mg/dL) helps manage hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as checking blood glucose levels once a week is insufficient for proper diabetes management, which typically requires more frequent monitoring. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for symptoms of hyperglycemia to take insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.
A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.
How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient receiving diuretics?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance, making it a sensitive indicator. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of overall fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a late sign of fluid imbalance and may not be sensitive enough to detect subtle changes. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is relevant but may not directly reflect fluid balance as it can be influenced by various other factors.
A nurse is caring for a client who speaks a language different from the nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client who speaks a different language is to review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter. This ensures compliance with best practices for communication when using interpreters, maintaining accuracy and confidentiality. Requesting an interpreter of a different sex from the client (Choice A) is not relevant to effective communication. Asking a family member or friend to interpret (Choice B) can lead to misinterpretation or breach of confidentiality. Directing attention toward the interpreter (Choice C) is not as crucial as understanding the facility's policy on interpreter use.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption. Orange juice is recommended because of its vitamin C content, which aids in the absorption of iron. Choice B, taking the medication on an empty stomach, is incorrect because ferrous sulfate is better absorbed with food. Choice C, taking the medication with milk if it causes stomach upset, is incorrect as calcium in milk can interfere with iron absorption. Choice D, taking the medication at bedtime, is incorrect as it is usually recommended to take iron supplements between meals or with food to enhance absorption.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.
A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should be included?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action to include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (choice B) is more relevant for clients with neutropenia to reduce the risk of infection. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia.
A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL is below the normal range for a newborn and indicates hypoglycemia, which can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Therefore, this finding should be reported to the provider immediately. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 140/min, a bulging anterior fontanel, and a respiratory rate of 50/min are all common findings in a newborn and do not raise immediate concerns.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of long-term disease management?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) is the most accurate test for long-term management of blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes mellitus. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing valuable information on the effectiveness of treatment and disease control. Postprandial blood glucose, glucose tolerance test, and fasting blood glucose are essential for monitoring blood glucose levels at specific times but do not offer the same insight into long-term disease management as HbA1c.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A WBC count of 15,000/mm3 is elevated, which may indicate infection, a common concern postoperatively. An elevated WBC count suggests the body is fighting an infection, and prompt reporting to the provider is essential for further evaluation and treatment. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the immediate postoperative period, respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range, and a heart rate of 90/min is also within an acceptable range postoperatively. Therefore, these findings do not raise immediate concerns that necessitate reporting to the provider.
A nurse is caring for a child who has cystic fibrosis and is receiving postural drainage. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a child with cystic fibrosis receiving postural drainage is to hold the hand flat to perform percussion. This technique allows for effective chest physiotherapy. Choice A is incorrect because postural drainage should be performed before meals to prevent vomiting during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect because bronchodilators are typically administered before postural drainage to help open up the airways. Choice D is incorrect as the frequency of postural drainage may vary depending on the individual's condition, so performing it twice a day may not be appropriate for all patients.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of alcohol use disorder and is experiencing withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Lorazepam is the correct medication to administer in this situation. It is used to manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal and prevent complications like seizures and delirium tremens. Metoclopramide is primarily used to treat gastrointestinal issues, Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication used for conditions like schizophrenia, and Methadone is typically used in managing opioid dependence. These medications are not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal.
What is the best method to manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering diuretics is the best method to manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to remove excess fluid from the body by increasing urine output, thus reducing the fluid volume in the bloodstream and tissues. Providing oral fluids (choice B) or increasing fluid intake (choice C) would exacerbate the fluid overload rather than managing it. Chest physiotherapy (choice D) is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure; it is more commonly used for conditions affecting the lungs or airways.
A client taking haloperidol is exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client exhibiting extrapyramidal symptoms while taking haloperidol is to administer benztropine. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms caused by antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice A) would exacerbate the symptoms rather than alleviate them. Administering naloxone (Choice C) is not indicated for extrapyramidal symptoms. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the primary intervention for managing extrapyramidal symptoms.
A nurse is providing care to a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing the client with a stool softener helps prevent constipation, reduces the need for straining during bowel movements, and ultimately decreases the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect as flossing daily does not directly address the issue of bleeding risk associated with thrombocytopenia. Choice B is incorrect as removing fresh flowers from the client's room is more related to the risk of infection rather than bleeding in thrombocytopenia. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding serving raw vegetables does not directly impact the risk of bleeding in clients with thrombocytopenia.
What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism to improve oxygenation levels. In pulmonary embolism, there is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen saturation levels. Anticoagulants (Choice B) are essential in the treatment of pulmonary embolism but are not the initial priority intervention. Surgery (Choice C) is not typically the first-line treatment for pulmonary embolism. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as the immediate action to address hypoxemia.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Eating more leafy green vegetables can increase vitamin K intake, which may reduce the effectiveness of warfarin. This can lead to fluctuations in the International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels, affecting the medication's efficacy. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements. Taking warfarin every other day, using a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding, and having regular INR checks are all appropriate and important actions when taking warfarin.
A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports frequent nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting are common. Instructing the client to eat dry carbohydrates like crackers before getting out of bed can help alleviate these symptoms. This recommendation helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen nausea. High-protein foods (Choice A) may be harder to digest and could exacerbate nausea. Lying down after meals (Choice B) may increase gastric reflux and worsen symptoms. Drinking water with meals (Choice C) may make the client feel fuller, potentially worsening nausea.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is crucial for the provider to be informed about the client taking warfarin to adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical to report for surgical planning. A history of hypertension (B) is important but may not require immediate intervention for surgery. Eating a light breakfast 2 hours prior (C) is a normal preoperative instruction. Smoking history (D) is relevant for overall health assessment but is not as urgent as the use of warfarin before surgery.
A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to lie down before taking the medication. Nitroglycerin can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure leading to dizziness or fainting, so taking the medication while lying down helps prevent falls. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin is usually taken on an empty stomach to enhance its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as taking a double dose of nitroglycerin can lead to low blood pressure and other adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be stored in their original container at room temperature away from light and moisture, not in the refrigerator.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL falls within the normal range. A low serum albumin level, as mentioned in choice B, should be reported as it may indicate malnutrition. Choices A and C are within normal ranges and would not typically require immediate reporting.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.
A nurse is assessing a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clay-colored stools are a classic finding in a client with cirrhosis. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired bile flow, resulting in pale or clay-colored stools due to a lack of bilirubin in the stool. Hypertension, stridor, and elevated temperature are not typically associated with cirrhosis. Hypertension may occur in cirrhosis but is not a consistent finding, stridor is more commonly associated with upper airway obstruction, and elevated temperature may indicate an infection rather than a direct result of cirrhosis.
A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following therapeutic effects of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Decreased serum ammonia. Lactulose is prescribed to decrease serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy. By reducing serum ammonia, lactulose helps improve the mental status of these clients. Therefore, monitoring for decreased serum ammonia is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose therapy. Choice A (Improved mental status) is indirectly related as it is the desired outcome of decreasing ammonia levels. Choices B (Increased urine output) and D (Decreased bilirubin levels) are not directly associated with the therapeutic effects of lactulose in cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy.
A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction the nurse should include for a client prescribed metformin is to avoid drinking alcohol. Alcohol consumption while on metformin increases the risk of lactic acidosis, a serious condition. Taking metformin at bedtime (choice A) is not a standard instruction. Eating 3 large meals each day (choice C) is not specific to metformin use and may not be suitable for all individuals. Reporting muscle pain (choice D) is important but not directly related to metformin use.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take is to place the client in a prone position for 30 minutes four times a day. This position helps prevent contractures after an amputation by stretching the hip flexors and preventing shortening of the residual limb. Keeping the residual limb flat on the bed (Choice A) may lead to contractures. Elevating the residual limb on a pillow (Choice B) can also cause contractures and hinder proper healing. Keeping the residual limb dependent (Choice D) is not recommended as it does not promote proper positioning and circulation.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has diabetes mellitus and a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction that the nurse should include is to inject insulin glargine once a day, at the same time each day. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a consistent level of insulin over 24 hours, helping to maintain stable blood glucose levels. Option B is incorrect because insulin glargine does not cause an immediate increase in blood glucose levels. Option C is important for preventing lipodystrophy but is not specific to insulin glargine administration. Option D is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically administered at the same time each day, regardless of meals.
A nurse is caring for a client who has received a new diagnosis of terminal cancer. The client tells the nurse, 'I just want to live long enough to see my child graduate.' The nurse should identify that the client is in which of the following stages of grief?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client expressing a desire to live long enough to see their child graduate is an example of bargaining, which is a stage of grief where individuals attempt to negotiate for more time or different outcomes. Denial refers to refusing to accept the reality of the situation, acceptance involves coming to terms with the diagnosis, and anger is feeling frustrated and upset about the situation. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Bargaining.'
A client is receiving brachytherapy for the treatment of prostate cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client receiving brachytherapy is to limit the client's visitors to 30 minutes per day. This is crucial to reduce exposure to radiation and maintain safety during the brachytherapy procedure. Cleansing equipment before removal from the client's room may be important for infection control but is not directly related to brachytherapy procedures. Discarding the client's linens in a double bag and discarding the radioactive source in a biohazard bag are incorrect choices as they do not specifically address the safety measures needed during brachytherapy for prostate cancer.
A client with osteoporosis needs to increase calcium intake. Which of the following foods should be recommended by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Broccoli. Broccoli is rich in calcium and is a suitable food to recommend to clients with osteoporosis to increase their calcium intake. Carrots, chicken, and bananas are not as high in calcium content compared to broccoli and therefore not the most appropriate choices for increasing calcium intake in clients with osteoporosis.
A nurse in a mental health facility is caring for a client who is angry and throwing objects at staff members. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a situation where a client is exhibiting violent behavior like throwing objects and posing a risk to themselves and others, the immediate priority is to ensure the safety of all involved. Placing the client in seclusion is a necessary intervention to prevent harm and allow for de-escalation. Asking the client to identify the trigger or instructing them to calm down may not be effective or safe in this escalated state. Encouraging the client to attend group therapy is not suitable when they are in an agitated and aggressive state that requires immediate intervention.
What is the best method to assess for fluid overload in patients with heart failure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Monitor daily weight. Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate method to assess fluid overload in patients with heart failure. Changes in weight can indicate fluid retention before visible signs like jugular vein distention or pitting edema appear. Checking for jugular vein distention (choice B) is helpful but may not be as sensitive as daily weight monitoring. Pitting edema (choice C) and fluid retention (choice D) are signs of fluid overload, but daily weight monitoring is a more proactive approach to detect changes early.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and requires augmentation of labor. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to the use of oxytocin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Shoulder presentation is a contraindication for oxytocin because it can increase the risk of complications during labor, such as shoulder dystocia. Diabetes mellitus (Choice A) is not a contraindication for the use of oxytocin. Postterm with oligohydramnios (Choice C) and chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may actually necessitate the use of oxytocin to induce or augment labor for the well-being of the mother and baby.
What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.
A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. An elevated WBC count can indicate a potential infection, especially in a postoperative client. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are common occurrences in postoperative clients and may not necessarily indicate a severe issue. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period. A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) can be a mild fever, which is common postoperatively due to the body's response to tissue injury. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours may be within normal limits for a postoperative client, especially if they are still recovering from anesthesia.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. A heart rate of 58/min is indicative of bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity, which should be reported immediately. While weight gain, respiratory rate, and temperature are important parameters to monitor, they are not as critical as identifying bradycardia in a client taking digoxin.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. A gastric residual of 200 mL or more indicates delayed gastric emptying, which can be a sign of potential complications such as aspiration or intolerance to the enteral feedings. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not require immediate reporting. A pH of 5.0 is normal for gastric contents, bowel sounds in all quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal motility, and a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, which can be a sign of complications in clients receiving chemotherapy. Rapid weight gain can be associated with conditions like fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, which need prompt medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are not typically immediate concerns related to chemotherapy. Alopecia (choice A) is a common side effect of chemotherapy, a white blood cell count of 6,000/mm³ (choice C) falls within the normal range, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) (choice D) is slightly elevated but not a critical finding in this context.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postoperative following a thoracentesis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tracheal deviation is the correct finding to report to the provider. It can indicate a pneumothorax, which is a serious complication following a thoracentesis that requires immediate attention. Oxygen saturation of 96% is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate issue. A pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10 is subjective and may not be related to a serious complication. A temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F) is slightly elevated but not a priority over tracheal deviation in this context.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. An elevated WBC count can indicate a potential infection, especially in a postoperative client. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are common occurrences in postoperative clients and may not necessarily indicate a severe issue. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period. A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) can be a mild fever, which is common postoperatively due to the body's response to tissue injury. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours may be within normal limits for a postoperative client, especially if they are still recovering from anesthesia.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following findings is the priority for the healthcare professional to report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. A heart rate of 58/min is indicative of bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity, which should be reported immediately. While weight gain, respiratory rate, and temperature are important parameters to monitor, they are not as critical as identifying bradycardia in a client taking digoxin.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. A gastric residual of 200 mL or more indicates delayed gastric emptying, which can be a sign of potential complications such as aspiration or intolerance to the enteral feedings. This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not require immediate reporting. A pH of 5.0 is normal for gastric contents, bowel sounds in all quadrants indicate normal gastrointestinal motility, and a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is within the normal range.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. A weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, which can be a sign of complications in clients receiving chemotherapy. Rapid weight gain can be associated with conditions like fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, which need prompt medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are not typically immediate concerns related to chemotherapy. Alopecia (choice A) is a common side effect of chemotherapy, a white blood cell count of 6,000/mm³ (choice C) falls within the normal range, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) (choice D) is slightly elevated but not a critical finding in this context.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postoperative following a thoracentesis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Tracheal deviation is the correct finding to report to the provider. It can indicate a pneumothorax, which is a serious complication following a thoracentesis that requires immediate attention. Oxygen saturation of 96% is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate issue. A pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10 is subjective and may not be related to a serious complication. A temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F) is slightly elevated but not a priority over tracheal deviation in this context.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.
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