ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Test
1. In preparation for ECT, the nurse knows that it is almost similar to that of:
- A. ECG
- B. General Anesthesia
- C. EEG
- D. MRI
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: General Anesthesia. In preparation for ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy), the nurse should be aware that it is almost similar to the process of administering general anesthesia. This similarity is crucial as it involves sedation and muscle relaxation to ensure safety during the procedure. Choice A (ECG) is incorrect because ECT and ECG (Electrocardiogram) serve different purposes and involve distinct procedures. Choice C (EEG) is incorrect as EEG (Electroencephalogram) measures brain activity and is not directly related to ECT. Choice D (MRI) is also incorrect as MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is a diagnostic imaging procedure that does not involve sedation or muscle relaxation like ECT and general anesthesia.
2. You are teaching your clients the difference between Type I (IDDM) and Type II (NDDM) diabetes. Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Both types of diabetes mellitus clients are prone to developing ketosis.
- B. Type II (NIDDM) is more common and preventable compared to Type I (IDDM) diabetes, which is genetic.
- C. Type I (IIDM) is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia.
- D. Type II (NIDDM) is characterized by abnormal immune response.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Type II diabetes (NIDDM) is characterized by insulin resistance and a relative lack of insulin. It is not primarily characterized by an abnormal immune response. Option A is incorrect because only Type I diabetes clients are prone to developing ketosis due to a lack of insulin. Option B is incorrect because while Type II diabetes is more common and often preventable through lifestyle changes, it is not solely genetic. Option C is incorrect because Type I diabetes, not Type II, is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia due to an absolute lack of insulin production.
3. Which of the four phases of emergency management is defined as 'sustained action that reduces or eliminates long-term risk to people and property from natural hazards and their effects'?
- A. Recovery
- B. Mitigation
- C. Response
- D. Preparedness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Mitigation.' Mitigation is the phase of emergency management that focuses on sustained actions aimed at reducing or eliminating long-term risks to people and property from natural hazards. Recovery (A) involves restoring and rebuilding infrastructure, housing, and services after a disaster. Response (C) deals with immediate actions taken to save lives and prevent further damage during a disaster. Preparedness (D) involves planning, training, and equipping organizations and communities to effectively respond to emergencies.
4. During the Emergent phase of a burn, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance in a burned client is:
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the Emergent phase of burns, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance is Hypokalemia. This is due to the shift of potassium from the intracellular space to the extracellular space, leading to low potassium levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Hyperkalemia, Hypernatremia, and Hyponatremia are not typically associated with the Emergent phase of burns and do not pose the same level of risk as Hypokalemia in this context.
5. Being in contact with reality and the environment is a function of the:
- A. conscience
- B. ego
- C. id
- D. super ego
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Being in contact with reality and the environment is a function of the ego. The ego is responsible for mediating between the id's basic desires, the superego's idealistic standards, and the real world. The conscience (not listed as a choice) is related to feelings of guilt or moral responsibility. The id represents primal instincts, and the superego represents the internalized ideals and moral standards.
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