ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1
1. Which individual is likely to have the best prognosis for recovery from his or her insult to the peripheral nervous system? An adult:
- A. client who developed rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after a tourniquet application.
- B. who suffered a bone-depth laceration to the shoulder during a knife attack.
- C. who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident.
- D. client who had nerves transected during surgery to remove a tumor from the mandible.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crushing-type injuries to the peripheral nervous system generally have a better prognosis compared to nerve transections or lacerations. In the scenario provided, the individual who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident is likely to have a better chance of recovery compared to nerve transection (choice D) or laceration (choice B). Rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after tourniquet application (choice A) are not directly related to peripheral nerve injury and do not indicate a better prognosis for recovery.
2. A client with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer pain relief medication.
- B. Obtain a stat head CT scan.
- C. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
- D. Call the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed. In a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache and blurred vision, these symptoms could indicate a hypertensive crisis. The priority action is to lower the blood pressure promptly to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications is crucial in this situation. Administering pain relief medication (Choice A) may temporarily alleviate symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of elevated blood pressure. Obtaining a stat head CT scan (Choice B) may be necessary to rule out other causes but should not delay the administration of antihypertensive medications. Calling the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important but may not address the immediate need to lower blood pressure in a hypertensive crisis.
3. A 22-year-old woman began using oral contraceptives several months ago and has presented for an appointment to discuss recent worrisome changes in her health status. Which of the following changes in the woman's health may the nurse potentially attribute to the use of oral contraceptives?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Frequent high blood pressure readings
- C. Frequent headaches without aura
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fatigue. Oral contraceptives can sometimes cause fatigue as a side effect. Frequent high blood pressure readings and frequent headaches without aura are less likely to be directly related to the use of oral contraceptives. Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of oral contraceptives but are not the changes typically associated with liver function affecting hormone metabolism as in the case of hepatitis C infection.
4. When administering azoles in the home setting, the home health nurse should prioritize educational interventions that address what nursing diagnosis?
- A. Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy
- B. Risk for acute confusion related to antifungal therapy
- C. Risk for infection related to antifungal therapy
- D. Risk for falls related to antifungal therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for injury related to antifungal therapy. When administering azoles, the priority is to educate patients and caregivers about potential side effects that could lead to injury, such as hepatotoxicity or allergic reactions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because acute confusion, infection, and falls are not typically associated with azole therapy.
5. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by:
- A. Immunosuppression
- B. Pulmonary edema
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Coughing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure is characterized by peripheral edema, which results from the buildup of fluid in the body. This fluid accumulates in the extremities due to the heart's inability to effectively pump blood forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Immunosuppression is not a typical feature of right-sided heart failure. Pulmonary edema is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs. Coughing is a symptom that can be present in various conditions but is not a defining characteristic of right-sided heart failure.
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