ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. Prior to leaving on a backpacking trip to Southeast Asia, a college student has received a tetanus booster shot. This immunization confers protection by way of what immune process?
- A. Passive natural immunity
- B. Active natural immunity
- C. Passive artificial immunity
- D. Active artificial immunity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Active artificial immunity. A tetanus booster shot confers protection through active artificial immunity. Active immunity involves the body producing its antibodies in response to an antigen, providing long-lasting protection. In this case, the tetanus booster shot triggers the student's immune system to produce specific antibodies against tetanus toxins. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because passive immunity does not involve the individual's immune system producing antibodies; instead, it involves the direct transfer of antibodies from another source (natural or artificial) for immediate, but temporary, protection.
2. Which type of lymphocyte recognizes and eliminates virus-infected cells and cancerous cells?
- A. Neutrophils
- B. Macrophages
- C. Natural killer cells
- D. Langerhans cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte that plays a crucial role in recognizing and eliminating virus-infected cells and cancerous cells. Neutrophils (Choice A) are a type of white blood cell involved in fighting infections, mainly through phagocytosis. Macrophages (Choice B) are another type of white blood cell that engulfs and digests cellular debris and pathogens. Langerhans cells (Choice D) are a type of dendritic cell found in the skin and mucosa, primarily involved in antigen presentation.
3. A patient with a complex medical history is considering the use of oral contraceptives. The nurse should be aware that many antibiotics and antiseizure medications cause what effect when combined with oral contraceptives?
- A. Increased risk of pregnancy
- B. Increased blood pressure
- C. Increased risk of thromboembolism
- D. Increased gastric acid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of pregnancy. Certain antibiotics and anticonvulsants can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by inducing liver enzymes that metabolize the hormones more quickly. This interaction can lead to a decreased contraceptive effect, thereby increasing the risk of pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the effect of antibiotics and antiseizure medications on oral contraceptives.
4. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about the use of this medication?
- A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken intermittently when symptoms worsen.
- C. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. Taking it at different times can lead to hormonal fluctuations and reduced medication efficacy. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone does not need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice B is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is typically taken continuously rather than intermittently. Choice D is incorrect because side effects should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management, not automatically leading to discontinuation of the medication.
5. In an adult patient suspected of having an androgen deficiency and considering treatment with testosterone, the use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what preexisting health problem?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. BPH
- C. Chronic renal failure
- D. Type 2 diabetes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia). Testosterone therapy can worsen symptoms of BPH by potentially increasing prostate size and stimulating the growth of prostate tissue. This can lead to complications such as urinary retention and the need for further medical interventions. Urinary incontinence (choice A) can have various causes but is not directly related to testosterone therapy. Chronic renal failure (choice C) and Type 2 diabetes (choice D) are not typically contraindications for testosterone therapy in the context of androgen deficiency.
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