wgu pathophysiology final exam WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. An older adult patient comes to the clinic complaining of not being able to do what he used to be able to. You know that normal changes associated with aging include:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Normal changes associated with aging include a slowed metabolic rate and decreased brain weight. Option A, 'Improved blood flow,' is incorrect as aging is generally associated with reduced vascular health rather than improved blood flow. Option D, 'Improved nerve fiber conduction,' is incorrect as aging typically leads to a decline in nerve function rather than improvement.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.

3. A patient's current medical condition is suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. Which of the following laboratory studies would be most clinically relevant in diagnosing this health problem?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, where impaired erythropoiesis is suspected, the most clinically relevant laboratory studies would focus on red blood cell parameters. Therefore, assessing RBC count, hemoglobin levels, and hematocrit values would provide direct insights into erythropoiesis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to erythropoiesis assessment. White blood cell count with a differential is more indicative of immune response and infection. INR and aPTT are coagulation studies, while d-dimer and C-reactive protein levels are more associated with inflammation and thrombotic events.

4. When a healthcare professional notices that a patient has type O blood, they realize that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patient's body.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with type O blood have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their body. This is because type O blood lacks A or B antigens on the surface of red blood cells, causing the body to produce antibodies against both A and B antigens. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A and B only antibodies are incorrect because type O individuals have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. Choice D is incorrect as O represents the blood type itself, not the antibodies present in the blood.

5. A client with a pneumothorax is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding would indicate that the treatment is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a pneumothorax receiving oxygen therapy, improved breath sounds on the affected side would indicate effective treatment. This finding suggests that the collapsed lung is re-expanding, allowing air to flow more freely in and out of the affected area. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: Increased respiratory rate, decreased oxygen saturation levels, and increased dyspnea and chest pain are signs of ineffective treatment or worsening of the condition in a client with a pneumothorax.

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