ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. Which type of lymphocyte recognizes and eliminates virus-infected cells and cancerous cells?
- A. Neutrophils
- B. Macrophages
- C. Natural killer cells
- D. Langerhans cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Natural killer cells are a type of lymphocyte that plays a crucial role in recognizing and eliminating virus-infected cells and cancerous cells. Neutrophils (Choice A) are a type of white blood cell involved in fighting infections, mainly through phagocytosis. Macrophages (Choice B) are another type of white blood cell that engulfs and digests cellular debris and pathogens. Langerhans cells (Choice D) are a type of dendritic cell found in the skin and mucosa, primarily involved in antigen presentation.
2. A patient began antiretroviral therapy several weeks ago for the treatment of HIV, and he has now presented to the clinic for a scheduled follow-up appointment. He states to the nurse, “I've been pretty good about taking all my pills on time, though it was a bit hit and miss over the holiday weekend.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statement?
- A. “Remember that if you miss a dose, you need to take a double dose at the next scheduled time.”
- B. “It's acceptable to miss an occasional dose as long as your symptoms don't worsen, but it's important to strive for consistent adherence.”
- C. “Remember that your antiretroviral drugs will only be effective if you take them consistently and as prescribed.”
- D. “If you're not consistent with taking your medications, you're likely to develop more side effects.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to remind the patient that antiretroviral drugs are most effective when taken consistently and as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because taking a double dose after missing a dose is not recommended, as it can lead to medication toxicity. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that missing doses is acceptable, which can reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while consistency is important, the focus should be on treatment effectiveness rather than side effects.
3. A patient is prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes. What is the expected outcome of this medication?
- A. Decreased testosterone production
- B. Decreased libido
- C. Decreased viral shedding
- D. Decreased bacterial replication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The expected outcome of acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes is decreased viral shedding. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby reducing viral shedding and helping to control outbreaks. Choice A, decreased testosterone production, and Choice B, decreased libido, are unrelated outcomes of acyclovir treatment for genital herpes. Choice D, decreased bacterial replication, is also incorrect as acyclovir specifically targets viruses and does not affect bacterial replication.
4. When teaching a patient about the use of finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), what should the nurse emphasize about the expected outcomes of this therapy?
- A. Expect improvement in symptoms within a few days.
- B. Improvement in symptoms may take several weeks or months.
- C. Expect immediate improvement in urinary flow.
- D. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable as it works by shrinking the prostate gland over time. Therefore, patients should be informed that improvement in symptoms may not be immediate. Choice A is incorrect because improvement in symptoms is not expected within a few days. Choice C is incorrect as immediate improvement in urinary flow is not typical with finasteride. Choice D is incorrect because finasteride manages BPH symptoms but does not cure the condition.
5. When a healthcare professional notices that a patient has type O blood, they realize that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patient's body.
- A. A only
- B. B only
- C. A and B
- D. O
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Individuals with type O blood have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their body. This is because type O blood lacks A or B antigens on the surface of red blood cells, causing the body to produce antibodies against both A and B antigens. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A and B only antibodies are incorrect because type O individuals have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. Choice D is incorrect as O represents the blood type itself, not the antibodies present in the blood.
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