wgu pathophysiology final exam WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Poor feeding and constipation are common early symptoms of infant botulism, which is caused by a neurotoxin that impairs muscle function. Option A is unrelated to the presentation of botulism. Option C does not directly relate to the symptoms of botulism. Option D is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than the constellation of symptoms seen in botulism.

2. When a healthcare professional notices that a patient has type O blood, they realize that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patient's body.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with type O blood have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their body. This is because type O blood lacks A or B antigens on the surface of red blood cells, causing the body to produce antibodies against both A and B antigens. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A and B only antibodies are incorrect because type O individuals have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. Choice D is incorrect as O represents the blood type itself, not the antibodies present in the blood.

3. What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient being treated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer. These risks should be discussed with the patient to ensure they are aware of the potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it has been linked to an increased risk of this condition. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT may have positive effects on mood and energy levels for some individuals, the focus here is on the long-term risks that need to be addressed. Choice D is incorrect as HRT is indeed associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, but the primary focus of the question is on cardiovascular events and breast cancer.

4. When teaching a patient about the use of finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), what should the nurse emphasize about the expected outcomes of this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable as it works by shrinking the prostate gland over time. Therefore, patients should be informed that improvement in symptoms may not be immediate. Choice A is incorrect because improvement in symptoms is not expected within a few days. Choice C is incorrect as immediate improvement in urinary flow is not typical with finasteride. Choice D is incorrect because finasteride manages BPH symptoms but does not cure the condition.

5. A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Choice B, increased risk of liver dysfunction, is not a common adverse effect of testosterone therapy. Choice C, increased risk of prostate cancer, is a concern when using testosterone therapy in patients with existing prostate cancer, but not a general adverse effect. Choice D, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with testosterone therapy.

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