ATI RN
WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A patient began antiretroviral therapy several weeks ago for the treatment of HIV, and he has now presented to the clinic for a scheduled follow-up appointment. He states to the nurse, “I've been pretty good about taking all my pills on time, though it was a bit hit and miss over the holiday weekend.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statement?
- A. “Remember that if you miss a dose, you need to take a double dose at the next scheduled time.”
- B. “It's acceptable to miss an occasional dose as long as your symptoms don't worsen, but it's important to strive for consistent adherence.”
- C. “Remember that your antiretroviral drugs will only be effective if you take them consistently and as prescribed.”
- D. “If you're not consistent with taking your medications, you're likely to develop more side effects.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to remind the patient that antiretroviral drugs are most effective when taken consistently and as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because taking a double dose after missing a dose is not recommended, as it can lead to medication toxicity. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that missing doses is acceptable, which can reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while consistency is important, the focus should be on treatment effectiveness rather than side effects.
2. A patient is prescribed acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes. What is the expected outcome of this medication?
- A. Decreased testosterone production
- B. Decreased libido
- C. Decreased viral shedding
- D. Decreased bacterial replication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The expected outcome of acyclovir (Zovirax) for the treatment of genital herpes is decreased viral shedding. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, thereby reducing viral shedding and helping to control outbreaks. Choice A, decreased testosterone production, and Choice B, decreased libido, are unrelated outcomes of acyclovir treatment for genital herpes. Choice D, decreased bacterial replication, is also incorrect as acyclovir specifically targets viruses and does not affect bacterial replication.
3. A patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) has a decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in his great toes. Which laboratory values should be assessed?
- A. Hematocrit and hemoglobin
- B. ALT and AST
- C. Urine culture and sensitivity
- D. Erythrocyte count and differential
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a patient receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin) with symptoms of decreased urinary output and decreased sensation in great toes, assessing urine culture and sensitivity is crucial. These symptoms could indicate peripheral neuropathy, a known side effect of isoniazid, and rifampin can cause renal toxicity. Checking for any urinary tract infection or drug-induced nephrotoxicity is important. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the symptoms presented by the patient or the potential side effects of the medications mentioned.
4. Prior to leaving on a backpacking trip to Southeast Asia, a college student has received a tetanus booster shot. This immunization confers protection by way of what immune process?
- A. Passive natural immunity
- B. Active natural immunity
- C. Passive artificial immunity
- D. Active artificial immunity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Active artificial immunity. A tetanus booster shot confers protection through active artificial immunity. Active immunity involves the body producing its antibodies in response to an antigen, providing long-lasting protection. In this case, the tetanus booster shot triggers the student's immune system to produce specific antibodies against tetanus toxins. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because passive immunity does not involve the individual's immune system producing antibodies; instead, it involves the direct transfer of antibodies from another source (natural or artificial) for immediate, but temporary, protection.
5. A woman with severe visual and auditory deficits is able to identify individuals by running her fingers lightly over her face. Which source is most likely to provide the input that allows for the woman's unique ability?
- A. Special somatic afferent fibers
- B. General somatic afferents
- C. Special visceral afferent cells
- D. General visceral afferent neurons
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, special visceral afferent cells. These cells are responsible for functions like taste and smell. In individuals with severe visual and auditory deficits, their other sensory abilities, such as touch, can be heightened. Special somatic afferent fibers (choice A) are involved in sensations like touch and vibration from the skin and muscles, but they are not specific to the face. General somatic afferents (choice B) transmit sensory information from the skin, muscles, and joints, but they are not specialized for the unique ability described. General visceral afferent neurons (choice D) are responsible for transmitting sensory information from internal organs, not relevant to the woman's ability to identify individuals through touch on her face.
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