ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
- A. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose every 4 hours.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
- D. Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.' When caring for a client receiving TPN, it is crucial to maintain aseptic technique to prevent infections. Changing the central line dressing with sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the client's system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours, monitoring blood glucose, and monitoring urine output are important aspects of care but are not directly related to preventing infection in clients receiving TPN.
2. A client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to take this medication for 3 months.
- B. I will take this medication with an antacid.
- C. I will avoid foods that contain iodine.
- D. I will take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I will take this medication in the morning before breakfast." Levothyroxine should be taken in the morning before breakfast to improve absorption and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because the duration of levothyroxine therapy is usually long-term and not limited to 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because levothyroxine should not be taken with antacids as they may decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to avoid foods that contain iodine while taking levothyroxine.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?
- A. PT 28 seconds
- B. INR 1.2
- C. aPTT 40 seconds
- D. Fibrinogen 350 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
4. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should be recommended?
- A. Almonds
- B. Spinach
- C. Yogurt
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yogurt is a calcium-rich food that helps strengthen bones and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. Almonds, spinach, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as yogurt and are not as beneficial for individuals with osteoporosis.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions in the client's history is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives?
- A. Hyperthyroidism.
- B. Thrombophlebitis.
- C. Diverticulosis.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications such as thromboembolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not contraindications for oral contraceptives. Hyperthyroidism may affect the metabolism of contraceptives but does not contraindicate their use. Diverticulosis and hypocalcemia do not directly impact the safety or effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
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