ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Ammonia 75 mcg/dL
- B. Sodium 142 mEq/L
- C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- D. Bilirubin 2.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated bilirubin level in clients with cirrhosis indicates worsening liver function and potential complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly as it may require immediate medical intervention. Elevated ammonia levels (choice A) are also concerning in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but bilirubin levels are more specific to liver function in this context. Choices B and C are within normal ranges and are not typically of immediate concern in cirrhosis.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
- B. Increased urinary output.
- C. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg.
- D. Decreased peripheral edema.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postpartum and is breastfeeding her newborn. The client asks the nurse to warm up seaweed soup that her partner brought for her. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Does the doctor know you are eating that?
- B. Why are you eating seaweed soup?
- C. Of course, I will heat that up for you.
- D. The hospital food is more nutritious.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Respecting cultural preferences promotes trust and client-centered care.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
- C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
- D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. Options A, B, and D are within acceptable ranges and not indicative of life-threatening complications when administering morphine.
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