ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral nutrition through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding
- B. Administer the feeding using a large-bore syringe
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees
- D. Replace the feeding bag every 24 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding. This helps maintain tube patency and prevents clogs. Choice B is incorrect because enteral feedings should be administered using a gravity drip method or a pump, not through a large-bore syringe. Choice C is incorrect because the head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30 degrees to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect because the feeding bag should be replaced every 24 hours to prevent bacterial contamination.
2. A client sustained a major burn over 20% of the body. What intervention should the nurse implement to meet the client's nutritional needs?
- A. Keep track of calorie intake for food and beverages.
- B. Provide a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.
- C. Schedule meals at 6-hour intervals.
- D. Provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to provide a high-protein, high-calorie diet for a client with major burns. This type of diet is essential to support healing and recovery. High-protein intake is crucial as it helps in tissue repair and wound healing, while high-calorie intake is necessary to meet the increased metabolic demands of the body during the healing process. Keeping track of calorie intake (Choice A) is important but doesn't address the specific needs of a burn patient. Providing a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet (Choice B) is not suitable for burn patients as they require adequate protein for wound healing. Scheduling meals at 6-hour intervals (Choice C) may be helpful for maintaining a consistent eating schedule, but it is not as crucial as providing the correct high-protein, high-calorie diet.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Give the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes.
- B. Dilute the medication before administration.
- C. Infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr.
- D. Administer the medication undiluted.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr. This slow infusion rate is crucial to prevent the development of hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Option A is incorrect because giving the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes can lead to adverse effects. Option B is incorrect as potassium chloride does not necessarily need to be diluted before administration in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as administering the medication undiluted can also increase the risk of hyperkalemia.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Ammonia 75 mcg/dL
- B. Sodium 142 mEq/L
- C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- D. Bilirubin 2.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated bilirubin level in clients with cirrhosis indicates worsening liver function and potential complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly as it may require immediate medical intervention. Elevated ammonia levels (choice A) are also concerning in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but bilirubin levels are more specific to liver function in this context. Choices B and C are within normal ranges and are not typically of immediate concern in cirrhosis.
5. A client has a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bounding pulses
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Headache
- D. Pale, cool skin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pale, cool skin is a common finding in clients with a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL due to decreased oxygen carrying capacity. Bounding pulses (Choice A) are not typically associated with low hemoglobin levels. Elevated blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common finding in clients with anemia. While headache (Choice C) can occur with anemia, it is not a specific finding directly related to a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 50,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access @ $149.99