ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam
1. The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Respiratory distress
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is on a beta blocker for hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia. Beta blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. Tachycardia (choice B) is unlikely as beta blockers have the opposite effect. Hypertension (choice C) is the condition being treated, not a side effect of beta blockers. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a common effect of beta blockers and is not typically monitored in clients taking beta blockers.
2. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer a potassium supplement.
- C. Continue the spironolactone as ordered.
- D. Increase the dose of spironolactone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: With a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L, which is high, the priority action for the nurse is to hold the spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, it is crucial to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia by discontinuing the medication. Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary for further guidance and potential adjustments to the treatment plan. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would be contraindicated since the client already has elevated potassium levels. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) can worsen hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be unsafe and exacerbate the high potassium levels.
3. What is a condition where the heart beats too slowly, reducing the amount of blood pumped to the body?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Atrial fibrillation
- D. Ventricular fibrillation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by a slow heart rate, which reduces the amount of blood pumped to the body. This can lead to symptoms like fatigue and dizziness. Choice B, Tachycardia, is the opposite condition where the heart beats too fast. Choices C and D, Atrial fibrillation and Ventricular fibrillation, refer to irregular and potentially life-threatening rapid heart rhythms involving the atria and ventricles respectively, not a slow heart rate.
4. What is a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are delayed or blocked, leading to a slower or irregular heartbeat?
- A. Heart block
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Arrhythmia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Heart block is the correct answer because it specifically refers to a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are delayed or blocked, resulting in a slower or irregular heartbeat. Tachycardia (choice B) is a condition characterized by a fast heart rate, Bradycardia (choice C) is a slow heart rate, and Arrhythmia (choice D) is a general term used to describe any abnormal heart rhythm, which may or may not involve delays or blocks in electrical impulses.
5. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?
- A. Foods high in potassium
- B. Foods high in sodium
- C. Foods high in calcium
- D. Foods high in chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.
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