pathophysiology final exam Pathophysiology Final Exam - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A 40-year-old man has been living with HIV for several years but experienced a significant decrease in his CD4+ levels a few months ago. The patient has just been diagnosed with Mycobacterium avium complex disease. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarithromycin. In the case of Mycobacterium avium complex disease, a common treatment regimen includes a macrolide antibiotic like clarithromycin or azithromycin in combination with other antimicrobials. Clarithromycin is a key component of the treatment due to its effectiveness against Mycobacterium avium complex. Choice B (Pyrazinamide) is not typically part of the standard treatment for this condition. Choice C (Rifapentine) is mainly used in tuberculosis treatment and is not a primary agent for Mycobacterium avium complex disease. Choice D (Azithromycin) is another suitable macrolide antibiotic for treating Mycobacterium avium complex disease but is not the medication typically used first-line.

2. A nurse is teaching a young adult patient about oral contraceptives, which the patient will soon begin taking. The patient's primary concern is the effectiveness of the medication in preventing pregnancy. The nurse should teach the patient that oral contraceptives, when taken consistently, are how effective in preventing pregnancy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When taken correctly, estrogen–progestin contraceptive preparations are nearly 100% effective in preventing pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests a range below the actual effectiveness, choice B provides a specific percentage that is not accurate, and choice C introduces the concept of genetic factors which is not relevant to the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

3. A patient is administered isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis. Which of the following adverse effects will result in discontinuation of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jaundice. Isoniazid (INH) is known to cause hepatotoxicity, which can manifest as jaundice. Jaundice is a serious adverse effect that warrants immediate discontinuation of the medication to prevent further liver damage. Weight gain, fever, and arthralgia are not typically associated with isoniazid use and would not necessitate discontinuation of the medication.

4. A client with a diagnosis of depression has been prescribed a medication that ultimately increases the levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin between neurons. Which process will accompany the actions of the neurotransmitter in a chemical synapse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When serotonin levels increase, more neurotransmitters will cross the synaptic cleft and bind with postsynaptic receptors, facilitating enhanced communication. Option A is incorrect because chemical synapses, unlike electrical synapses, are unidirectional. Option B is incorrect because neurotransmitters impact communication with multiple neurons, not just a single connected neuron. Option C is incorrect because neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft, not gap junctions.

5. A patient arrives at her follow-up appointment 1 month post-hysterectomy and complains to the nurse that her scars do not seem to be healing properly. Upon inspection, the nurse notices that the scars are raised but still within the boundaries of the original incisions. The nurse tells the patient this kind of dysfunctional wound healing is called:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertrophic scarring occurs when a scar is raised but remains within the boundaries of the original wound, unlike keloids, which extend beyond the wound edges. Dehiscence refers to the separation of wound edges, while contracture involves the tightening or constriction of a scar, leading to limited mobility.

Similar Questions

A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation of a sharp, intermittent, severe, stabbing facial pain that she describes as 'like an electric shock.' The pain occurs only on one side of her face; it seems to be triggered when she chews, brushes her teeth, or sometimes when she merely touches her face. There is no numbness associated with the pain. What is most likely causing her pain?
What nursing diagnosis is suggested by the patient's statement regarding taking extra griseofulvin when she thinks her infection is getting worse?
An 8-year-old boy has been diagnosed with a sex hormone deficiency and has begun a course of treatment with testosterone. What change in the boy's health status would necessitate a stop to the course of treatment?
What important information should the nurse provide about the risks associated with tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for a patient with a history of breast cancer?
The parents of a 3-year-old boy have brought him to a pediatrician for assessment of the boy's late ambulation and frequent falls. Subsequent muscle biopsy has confirmed a diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Which teaching point should the physician include when explaining the child's diagnosis to his parents?
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