Free ATI Mental Health practice for ATI Mental Health (ATI RN). Answer 93 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking on Nurs
A patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly associated with sexual dysfunction as a side effect. This adverse effect includes decreased libido, delayed orgasm, and erectile dysfunction. Educating patients about this potential side effect is crucial to manage expectations and consider appropriate interventions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as SSRIs are not typically associated with hypertension, diarrhea, or weight gain as common side effects.
A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the client to participate in group therapy is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode. Group therapy provides a supportive environment where the client can share experiences, learn coping strategies, and receive emotional support from peers and mental health professionals. It can help reduce feelings of isolation, improve social skills, and enhance overall well-being. Group therapy also promotes a sense of belonging and understanding, which are essential for individuals dealing with bipolar disorder and depressive symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are not the most appropriate interventions for a client experiencing a depressive episode in bipolar disorder. Encouraging the client to avoid physical activity may worsen their symptoms, promoting social activities may not address the underlying issues effectively, and setting goals may be overwhelming during a depressive episode.
A teenage boy is attracted to a female teacher. Without objective evidence, a school nurse overhears the boy state, 'I know she wants me.' This statement reflects which defense mechanism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Projection. The nurse should determine that the client's statement reflects the defense mechanism of projection. Projection involves attributing one's unacceptable feelings or impulses to another person. By projecting these feelings onto someone else, the individual reduces their own anxiety. Displacement involves transferring feelings from one target to another, not attributing them to another person. Rationalization involves making excuses to justify behavior, not attributing feelings to others. Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable drives or impulses into more constructive and acceptable activities, not attributing feelings to another person.
What assessment question will provide information to the healthcare provider regarding the effects of a woman's circadian rhythms on her quality of life?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct assessment question to understand the effects of a woman's circadian rhythms on her quality of life is to inquire about her sleep duration. Circadian rhythms significantly influence sleep patterns, so knowing how much sleep she usually gets each night can provide valuable insight into potential circadian rhythm disturbances and their impact on her overall well-being.
A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) and is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to be effective, so it is important for the client to be informed about this timeframe. This medication does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, but it can be taken with or without food. Choice A is a good practice for many medications but not specifically related to sertraline (Zoloft). Choice D is not directly related to sertraline (Zoloft) but pertains to dietary restrictions when taking MAOIs due to potential interactions with tyramine.
A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which medication is commonly prescribed for this phase of the disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Fluoxetine. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is commonly prescribed to manage the depressive episodes in bipolar disorder. SSRIs are effective in treating the depressive phase of bipolar disorder as they help regulate serotonin levels in the brain, which can improve mood and reduce symptoms of depression. Choice A, Valproic acid, is used more commonly in the treatment of acute mania or mixed episodes in bipolar disorder. Choice B, Risperidone, is an atypical antipsychotic often used to manage psychotic symptoms in bipolar disorder. Choice D, Lithium, is primarily used for the maintenance treatment of bipolar disorder to prevent future manic and depressive episodes.
Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder due to its anxiolytic properties. It helps reduce the frequency and intensity of panic attacks by acting on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, lithium is primarily used for bipolar disorder, and fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used for depression and some anxiety disorders, but not as a first-line treatment for panic disorder.
A client diagnosed with OCD spends hours bathing and grooming. During a one-on-one interaction, the client discusses the rituals in detail but avoids any feelings that the rituals generate. Which defense mechanism should the nurse identify?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Intellectualization is a defense mechanism where an individual focuses on rational, logical explanations to distance themselves from uncomfortable emotions. In this scenario, the client discusses the OCD rituals in a detailed and analytical manner, avoiding the emotional aspects associated with them. This behavior reflects intellectualization rather than dissociation, rationalization, or sublimation. Dissociation involves a disconnection from reality, rationalization is the attempt to justify behaviors, and sublimation is redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities.
Which of the following characteristics is not a feature of borderline personality disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by an intense fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, and chronic feelings of emptiness. Grandiosity, which involves an inflated sense of self-importance, is typically associated with narcissistic personality disorder rather than borderline personality disorder.
When a patient with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine, what is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When initiating fluoxetine therapy in a patient with major depressive disorder, monitoring for suicidal ideation is crucial due to the increased risk of suicidal thoughts or behaviors that can occur, especially in the initial phase of treatment. This close monitoring is essential to ensure patient safety and intervene promptly if such symptoms arise. Weight gain, hypertension, and hyperglycemia are potential side effects of some medications used to treat depression, but suicidal ideation is the most critical and immediate side effect to monitor for when starting fluoxetine.
Which therapeutic communication statement might a psychiatric-mental health registered nurse use when a patient's nursing diagnosis is altered thought processes?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Asking about the content of the voices helps understand the patient's experience and assess risk.
A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal? Select one that doesn't apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During alcohol withdrawal, symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, diaphoresis, and seizures are commonly observed. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia, an increased heart rate, is more commonly seen. Therefore, bradycardia is the correct answer as it is not an expected symptom during alcohol withdrawal. Tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis are all common manifestations of alcohol withdrawal, while bradycardia is not typically seen in this context.
Adolescents often display fluctuations in mood along with undeveloped emotional regulation and poor tolerance for frustration. Emotional and behavioral control usually increases over the course of adolescence due to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During adolescence, emotional and behavioral control typically improves as the cerebellum matures. The cerebellum plays a significant role in regulating emotions and behavior, contributing to the increased control seen in adolescents over time.
During an assessment, a nurse observes a client showing signs of moderate anxiety. Which symptom is not typically associated with moderate anxiety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When assessing a client with moderate anxiety, the nurse should anticipate signs such as fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting. These behaviors are common manifestations of increased stress levels. Palpitations, on the other hand, are more commonly associated with severe anxiety or panic attacks. Other symptoms of severe anxiety may include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances.
The healthcare provider is preparing to provide medication instruction for a patient. Which of the following understandings about anxiety will be essential to effective instruction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Mild anxiety sharpens the senses, increases the perceptual field, and results in heightened awareness of the environment, which enhances learning. As anxiety increases, attention span decreases, making learning more difficult. Therefore, mild anxiety is more conducive to effective instruction compared to moderate to severe anxiety, panic-level anxiety, or severe anxiety. Choice A is incorrect because moderate to severe anxiety impairs learning. Choice C is incorrect as panic-level anxiety can be overwhelming and hinder the learning process. Choice D is incorrect because severe anxiety typically leads to impaired attention span rather than enhancing it.
Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Excessive worry is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Individuals with GAD often experience persistent and excessive worry or anxiety about a variety of situations or activities, even when there is little or no reason to worry. This chronic worrying can significantly impact their daily functioning and quality of life, distinguishing it as a key feature of GAD. Flashbacks are more commonly associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), not GAD. Hallucinations are not typically seen in GAD but may be present in conditions like schizophrenia. Compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not GAD.
Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Alogia, also known as poverty of speech, is a negative symptom of schizophrenia. It refers to a reduction in the amount of speech or the feeling that one has nothing to say. Hallucinations and delusions are positive symptoms, characterized by the presence of abnormal experiences and beliefs. Paranoia is a symptom involving intense anxious or fearful feelings, which is not classified as a negative symptom of schizophrenia.
When evaluating a client's progress in psychotherapy, which outcome is appropriate for the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In psychotherapy, identifying triggers for anxiety is a crucial step towards understanding and managing one's anxiety symptoms. By recognizing these triggers, clients can work on developing coping strategies and addressing the root cause of their anxiety, leading to improved mental health outcomes. Decreasing avoidance behaviors and expressing feelings of anger are also important aspects of therapy. However, identifying triggers for anxiety is a more specific and foundational goal in addressing anxiety disorders, making it the most appropriate outcome to evaluate a client's progress in psychotherapy.
A client with bipolar disorder is in the manic phase. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, individuals may engage in impulsive behaviors that can put them at risk of harm. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimuli can help reduce the risk of injury by minimizing triggers for impulsive actions. This intervention promotes a safe and controlled setting for the client, which is crucial in managing the symptoms of mania. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice B) may increase stimuli and potentially exacerbate manic symptoms. Monitoring for signs of exhaustion (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the safety concerns related to impulsive behaviors during mania. Encouraging the client to rest and sleep as needed (Choice D) may be challenging during the manic phase when individuals typically experience decreased need for sleep.
A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. Which potential side effect requires regular monitoring?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine, regular monitoring for agranulocytosis is essential. Agranulocytosis is a severe reduction in white blood cells that can be life-threatening. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent serious complications. Weight loss (Choice A) is not a common side effect of clozapine. Hypertension (Choice B) and hyperthyroidism (Choice D) are also not typically associated with clozapine use, making them incorrect choices for regular monitoring.
A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is being discharged. Which of the following instructions should the nurse not include in the discharge teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Discharge instructions for a client with GAD should include practicing relaxation techniques daily, avoiding caffeine and alcohol, engaging in regular physical activity, and seeking support from friends and family. Benzodiazepines are not recommended as the first-line treatment due to their potential for dependence and should not be included in the discharge teaching.
A healthcare professional is conducting education on anxiety and stress management. Which of the following should be identified as the most important initial step in learning how to manage anxiety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Awareness of factors creating stress. In managing anxiety, the first crucial step is recognizing and being aware of the factors that contribute to stress. Without this awareness, it becomes challenging to effectively address and manage anxiety. Diagnostic blood tests are not typically the initial step in managing anxiety; they may be used to rule out other medical conditions but are not the primary focus. While relaxation exercises can be helpful in managing anxiety, understanding the root causes of stress takes precedence. Identifying support systems is important but comes after recognizing the stress factors to develop a comprehensive management plan.
Which client statement indicates an understanding of the education provided about the antidepressant medication sertraline (Zoloft)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B is the correct answer. It is crucial for clients to understand that sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to show its full effects. Patients should be informed about this delay in onset of action to set realistic expectations and adhere to the treatment plan. This education helps prevent premature discontinuation of the medication due to perceived lack of efficacy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because sertraline (Zoloft) should be taken with food to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Choice D is inaccurate as there are specific medications that should be avoided with sertraline, but a general statement to avoid all other medications is overly broad and not necessary.
An unemployed college graduate is experiencing severe anxiety over not finding a teaching position and has difficulty with independent problem-solving. During a routine physical examination, the graduate confides in the clinic nurse. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In situations where a client is experiencing severe anxiety and struggles with independent problem-solving, it is essential for the nurse to work through the problem-solving process together with the client. By doing so, the nurse can provide support and guidance to help the client navigate through their challenges effectively. Choice A is not the most appropriate as just encouraging alternative coping mechanisms may not address the root of the problem. Choice B of completing the problem-solving process for the graduate does not promote independence or skill development. Choice D of encouraging the graduate to keep a journal may be helpful but does not directly address the need for assistance in problem-solving during heightened anxiety.
A healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which outcome should indicate that the medication has been effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A decrease in manic episodes is a key indicator of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Manic episodes are a hallmark of bipolar disorder, and a decrease in their frequency or intensity suggests that the medication is helping to stabilize the client's mood and manage their symptoms. While choices B, C, and D are important aspects of overall health and well-being, they are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Choice B focuses on mood swings in general, which may include depressive episodes as well, while choice C addresses sleep patterns and choice D relates to weight stability, which can be influenced by various factors unrelated to bipolar disorder treatment.
A female patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been prescribed a first-generation antipsychotic medication. What information should the nurse provide to the patient regarding her signs and symptoms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
First-generation antipsychotic medications are effective in reducing hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. These medications primarily target positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, the nurse should inform the patient that she should experience a reduction in hallucinations with the prescribed first-generation antipsychotic medication.
Which of the following is not a common symptom of major depressive disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Common symptoms of major depressive disorder include insomnia, feelings of hopelessness, difficulty concentrating, and appetite changes. Increased energy is not typically associated with major depressive disorder; instead, fatigue is more commonly observed. This symptom differentiation helps in diagnosing major depressive disorder accurately.
In treating social anxiety disorder, which medication is commonly prescribed to patients with this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used to treat social anxiety disorder. SSRIs are a first-line pharmacological treatment for social anxiety disorder due to their effectiveness in reducing anxiety symptoms by increasing serotonin levels in the brain, which helps regulate mood and emotions. Methylphenidate is a stimulant primarily used in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) but not in social anxiety disorder. Lithium is typically used in bipolar disorder, while haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication more commonly used in conditions like schizophrenia. Therefore, the correct choice for treating social anxiety disorder is Sertraline (B).
A client prescribed fluoxetine for depression is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Fluoxetine can cause drowsiness, affecting a person's ability to drive safely. It is essential to avoid driving until the client knows how the medication affects them to ensure safety. Choice A is incorrect because fluoxetine is usually taken in the morning due to its potential to cause insomnia. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine is recommended to be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects, not specifically to avoid stomach upset. Choice D is incorrect because fluoxetine is typically prescribed for depression or other mood disorders on a daily basis, not as needed for anxiety.
A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding would indicate early alcohol withdrawal?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client experiencing early alcohol withdrawal, one of the key assessment findings is diaphoresis (excessive sweating). This is due to autonomic hyperactivity commonly seen during this phase, along with other signs like tremors and tachycardia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension (low blood pressure), and hypothermia (low body temperature) are not typically associated with early alcohol withdrawal, making them incorrect choices.
When assessing a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder who states, 'I feel like I can't go on,' which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's risk for suicide. By asking if the client has a plan to commit suicide, the nurse can determine the immediate safety of the client and take appropriate interventions to prevent harm. Administering antidepressant medication is not the first action to take in this situation as assessing the client's safety is the priority. Encouraging the client to attend a support group or contacting the client's family, although beneficial, are not immediate actions to ensure the client's safety in a crisis situation.
A client has been taking lithium for several years with good symptom control. The client presents in the emergency department with blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea. Which lithium level should the nurse correlate with these symptoms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Symptoms such as blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea are indicative of lithium toxicity. A lithium level of 1.7 is within the toxic range. When clients present with these symptoms, it is crucial for the nurse to correlate them with elevated lithium levels to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications.
A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing treatment with an SSRI. Which SSRI is commonly utilized for this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly prescribed for obsessive-compulsive disorder due to its efficacy in managing OCD symptoms. While different SSRIs may be used based on individual patient response and tolerability, Paroxetine stands out as a well-established option for treating OCD. Fluoxetine (Choice A) is another SSRI commonly used for OCD, but Paroxetine is more commonly associated with this indication. Citalopram (Choice B) and Escitalopram (Choice D) are also SSRIs but are not typically the first choice for treating OCD.
A client has been diagnosed with depersonalization/derealization disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Depersonalization/derealization disorder is characterized by feelings of detachment from one's body or surroundings. Individuals with this disorder may feel like they are observing themselves from outside their body or that the world around them is unreal. Therefore, the nurse should expect behaviors such as feelings of detachment from one's body (A). Fear of gaining weight (B) is more indicative of an eating disorder, paralysis of a limb (C) could be related to neurological issues, and episodes of hypomania (D) are associated with mood disorders like bipolar disorder, but not specifically with depersonalization/derealization disorder.
A client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder tells the nurse, 'You are the only one who understands me. The other nurses don't care about me.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct response is to acknowledge the client's feelings and provide support while also emphasizing that all staff members care about the client's well-being. Choice A does not acknowledge the client's emotions and may come across as dismissive. Choice C invalidates the client's feelings and may make the client feel misunderstood. Choice D minimizes the client's emotions, which can lead to a breakdown in therapeutic communication. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate response as it validates the client's feelings while reinforcing the idea that the entire healthcare team is supportive.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare professional expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct behavior that the healthcare professional should expect in an individual with schizoid personality disorder is indifference to praise or criticism. While it is true that individuals with this disorder often exhibit a preference for solitary activities and detachment from social relationships, the key defining characteristic is their emotional detachment and lack of response to external feedback, which includes being indifferent to praise or criticism. Anxiety in social situations is not a typical feature of schizoid personality disorder.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is experiencing severe anxiety. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During severe anxiety, it is essential to create a quiet and calm environment to help the client feel safe and reduce anxiety levels. Loud or stimulating environments can exacerbate anxiety symptoms, so providing a serene setting can promote relaxation and a sense of security.
A patient with bipolar disorder has been prescribed lithium. Which dietary advice is important for the nurse to include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patients prescribed lithium should maintain a consistent salt intake to prevent fluctuations in lithium levels. Salt intake can impact lithium levels, and sudden changes in salt intake can affect how the body absorbs and excretes lithium. Therefore, advising the patient to maintain a stable salt intake is crucial for the effectiveness and safety of lithium therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in tyramine is more relevant for patients taking MAOIs, not lithium. Increasing protein intake or avoiding foods high in fat are not specific dietary recommendations for patients on lithium therapy.
A client is being taught relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which of the following techniques should not be included in the teaching? Select all that apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Deep breathing exercises, progressive muscle relaxation, and mindfulness meditation are commonly used relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Cognitive restructuring is a cognitive-behavioral technique aimed at changing negative thought patterns and beliefs, not a relaxation technique. It focuses on altering cognitive distortions rather than inducing physical relaxation responses.
How should the nurse characterize the client's appraisal of the job loss stressor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's statement reflects a positive outlook on the job loss, viewing it as a challenge and an opportunity for personal growth. This perspective suggests that the client is resilient and adaptive, focusing on new possibilities rather than dwelling on the negative aspects of the situation. Choice D, 'Challenging,' is the correct characterization as it aligns with the client's positive appraisal. Choices A, 'Irrelevant,' B, 'Harm/loss,' and C, 'Threatening,' are incorrect as they do not capture the client's adaptive response to the stressor.
A client has been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder commonly exhibit perfectionism, a need for orderliness, and a preoccupation with details. This behavior often interferes with task completion and can impact interpersonal relationships. Choice A is correct because perfectionism is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder typically lack flexibility, may not display generosity, and tend to avoid spontaneity.
A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who has been prescribed an SSRI. Which SSRI is commonly used for this condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Sertraline. Sertraline, an SSRI, is commonly used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its efficacy and tolerability. Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant used for ADHD and narcolepsy, not for GAD. Lithium is mainly used for bipolar disorder, not for GAD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, not typically used for GAD.
A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client's life. However, susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be accurately estimated without considering the individual's coping resources and available support systems. Positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can mitigate the risk of stress-related illnesses even in the face of significant life changes and losses. Choice A is incorrect because it makes a definitive statement about the client's state without considering individual coping mechanisms and support. Choice B is incorrect because a score of 110 does not necessarily mean no threat of stress-related illness, as individual factors play a crucial role. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes a positive outlook without acknowledging the potential impact of the experienced losses on stress levels.
A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Clients should not stop taking buspirone (Buspar) abruptly as it may cause withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is correct as buspirone can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so avoiding driving is important. Choice C is also accurate because buspirone may take several weeks to reach its full effectiveness. Choice D is valid as buspirone is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In caring for a client with OCD, it is essential to gradually limit the time allotted for compulsive behaviors. This intervention helps the client develop alternative coping mechanisms. Encouraging suppression or setting strict limits on compulsive behaviors can exacerbate the client's anxiety, making it crucial to approach the care plan with a gradual reduction strategy. Allowing the client to perform compulsive behaviors as needed does not promote progress towards managing OCD symptoms and may reinforce maladaptive patterns of behavior.
A client is experiencing occasional feelings of sadness due to the recent death of a beloved pet. The client's appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How should the nurse interpret the client's behaviors?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the nurse should interpret the client's behaviors as not indicative of mental illness. The client is experiencing normal feelings of sadness following the loss of a pet, and the fact that the client's appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine remain unchanged suggests no functional impairment. It is essential to recognize that experiencing occasional feelings of sadness in response to a significant life event, such as the death of a pet, does not necessarily signify mental illness, especially when there is no significant impairment in daily functioning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they incorrectly suggest that the client's behaviors indicate mental illness, which is not the case in this context.
When assessing a patient with major depressive disorder, which symptom would most likely be observed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Anhedonia, the inability to feel pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable, is a hallmark symptom of major depressive disorder. Patients with major depressive disorder often experience a pervasive feeling of emptiness and loss of interest in activities they used to find pleasurable. Euphoria, increased energy, and racing thoughts are more commonly associated with conditions like bipolar disorder rather than major depressive disorder.
After fasting from 10 p.m. the previous evening, a client finds out that the blood test has been canceled. The client swears at the nurse and states, 'You are incompetent!' Which is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the most appropriate response for the nurse is option B. By acknowledging the client's feelings and setting a boundary regarding inappropriate behavior, the nurse addresses the situation with empathy. This response demonstrates understanding of the client's emotions while also maintaining a professional standard by expressing discomfort with swearing. Option A could come off as defensive and may escalate the situation. Option C may be perceived as condescending and not immediately address the client's behavior. Option D, although offering space, does not directly address the inappropriate behavior and misses an opportunity to set a professional boundary.
A client states, 'I am the only one who can hear voices.' Which is the nurse's best response?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best response for the nurse is to encourage the client to talk about their experiences with hearing voices. By asking the client to share more details about the voices, the nurse can gain insight into the nature of the auditory hallucinations and better understand the client's condition. This open-ended question allows the client to express themselves freely and helps build rapport and trust between the client and the nurse. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the client's statement or encourage further elaboration, making them less effective responses in this context.
During cognitive-behavioral therapy, a 12-year-old patient reports to the nurse practitioner:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cognitive-behavioral therapy, recognizing and challenging negative thoughts is crucial for progress. Choice B demonstrates the patient's ability to identify and correct distorted thoughts, indicating positive advancement in therapy. This cognitive restructuring is a key component of cognitive-behavioral therapy, helping individuals develop healthier thinking patterns and coping strategies.
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours each day washing her hands. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Setting a time limit for hand washing is an appropriate intervention for a client with OCD who spends excessive time on this compulsive behavior. By setting a time limit, the nurse can help the client gradually reduce the compulsive behavior, promoting a more manageable approach to hand washing without completely discouraging it. Encouraging the client to wash her hands less frequently (Choice A) may not address the root of the issue and could lead to increased anxiety. Teaching relaxation techniques (Choice C) may be helpful for overall anxiety management but may not directly address the excessive hand washing behavior. Discouraging the client from washing her hands (Choice D) may increase anxiety and resistance, making it a less effective intervention.
In what order should the following goals be approached for a client being treated for alcoholism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When treating a client for alcoholism, it is important to follow a structured approach to maximize treatment effectiveness. The correct order of approaching goals is to first help the client in developing alternative coping skills to manage triggers and stressors without relying on alcohol. This is followed by attaining physiological stabilization, which involves addressing any physical health issues related to alcoholism. Next, the client should learn about dependence and recovery to understand the nature of their condition and the process of recovery. Finally, the goals of abstinence and developing a support system come into play to ensure long-term sobriety and a reliable network of support. Therefore, the correct order is: Developing alternative coping skills; attaining physiological stabilization; learning about dependence and recovery; abstinence and development of a support system.
What information should the nurse include in patient education for a patient prescribed valproic acid for bipolar disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Regular blood tests are crucial when taking valproic acid to monitor the medication levels in the bloodstream. This monitoring helps ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dosage for effective treatment and to prevent adverse effects associated with either subtherapeutic or toxic levels of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between valproic acid and dairy products. Choice C is incorrect as valproic acid can generally be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping valproic acid can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition.
Which of the following is not a symptom of a panic attack?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Symptoms of a panic attack include shortness of breath, dizziness, and hot flashes. Chest pain is not a common symptom of a panic attack but can be present in some cases. Euphoria is not typically associated with panic attacks.
In managing a patient with anorexia nervosa, which initial treatment goal is most important?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most crucial initial treatment goal for anorexia nervosa is restoring nutritional status. This is essential to prevent life-threatening complications associated with severe malnutrition, such as organ damage and cardiac issues. Addressing distorted body image, resolving family conflicts, and increasing social interactions are important aspects of treatment, but they are secondary to the critical need of restoring the patient's nutritional status to ensure their physical well-being and recovery.
Which statement indicates an understanding of the DSM-5 diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Option A is the correct answer as the DSM-5 not only provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders but also includes information on cultural considerations. Understanding cultural factors is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate care, highlighting the comprehensive nature of the DSM-5 for healthcare providers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while the DSM-5 is indeed a tool for healthcare providers, it is also used in legal settings, and it focuses on diagnostic criteria and not just the prevalence of mental disorders.
Which of the following are therapeutic communication techniques that a healthcare professional can use when interacting with clients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Therapeutic communication techniques aim to establish a trusting and supportive relationship between the healthcare professional and the client. Using silence is a valid therapeutic technique that allows the client to reflect and express their thoughts. On the other hand, discouraging the client from washing their hands goes against good hygiene practices and is not therapeutic. Giving advice and providing reassurance can be non-therapeutic if not used appropriately, as they may undermine the client's autonomy and problem-solving abilities.
A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client with bipolar disorder prescribed lithium is to maintain consistent sodium intake. Fluctuations in sodium levels can impact lithium levels, potentially leading to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to advise the client to keep their sodium intake consistent to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the lithium therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in potassium is not directly related to lithium therapy. Increasing intake of caffeinated beverages can interfere with the action of lithium. Following a low-protein diet is not a standard recommendation for clients prescribed lithium.
When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.
Which activity is most appropriate for a child with ADHD?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Engaging in physical activities like tennis is beneficial for children with ADHD as it allows them to release excess energy and enhance concentration. Exercise can help improve focus and reduce hyperactivity in children with ADHD.
Which statement reflects an accurate understanding of the concepts of mental health and mental illness?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Understanding mental health and mental illness as multidimensional and culturally defined is essential for healthcare professionals. Mental health varies across cultures and is influenced by various dimensions such as biological, psychological, social, and spiritual factors. Recognizing these differences helps in providing culturally competent care and understanding the diverse expressions of mental health and illness. Choice A is incorrect because mental health and mental illness are not rigid or solely based on religion. Choice C is incorrect because mental health and mental illness are not universally experienced in the same way and can change over time. Choice D is incorrect because mental health and mental illness are not unidimensional; they involve various factors and are not fixed in nature.
A nursing instructor is teaching a group of students about intimate partner violence. Which response by the students indicates no further teaching is needed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Alaska Native women do report the highest rate of intimate partner violence. This statistic is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of to provide culturally sensitive care and interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect statements. While it is essential to understand disparities in intimate partner violence rates among different populations, in this context, the focus is on recognizing the accurate information provided about Alaska Native women.
Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Valproic acid is commonly prescribed as a mood stabilizer for the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps in controlling mood swings, preventing manic episodes, and reducing the risk of depressive episodes in individuals with bipolar disorder. Sertraline is an antidepressant typically used for major depressive disorder and other anxiety disorders, not for bipolar disorder. Clozapine and Haloperidol are antipsychotic medications primarily used in schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders, not as first-line treatments for bipolar disorder.
A patient with major depressive disorder is being treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Memory loss, especially short-term memory loss, is a common side effect associated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). During ECT treatment, the electrical currents passed through the brain can disrupt short-term memory formation. This side effect is usually temporary, but patients should be closely monitored for any changes in memory function during and after the treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not commonly associated with ECT. Hypertension, weight gain, and hyperglycemia are not typically observed as side effects of ECT.
A physically and emotionally healthy client has just been fired. During a routine office visit, he states to a nurse: 'Perhaps this was the best thing to happen. Maybe I'll look into pursuing an art degree.' How should the nurse characterize the client's appraisal of the job loss stressor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's statement indicates that he views the job loss as an opportunity for growth and a new direction in life rather than a threat or harm/loss. He sees it as a challenge and is considering it positively, demonstrating resilience and adaptability in the face of adversity. Choice A, 'Irrelevant,' is incorrect as the client's response shows relevance and a positive outlook. Choice B, 'Harm/loss,' is incorrect as the client does not express a sense of harm or loss but rather opportunity. Choice C, 'Threatening,' is incorrect as the client's response does not convey fear or threat but rather a positive reframe of the situation.
A healthcare provider is providing education to the family of a client who has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Make sure the client takes prescribed medications regularly.' Consistent medication adherence is crucial in managing the symptoms and stabilizing mood in individuals with bipolar disorder. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding all stressful situations is often not feasible and not the primary treatment approach for bipolar disorder. Choice B, while important, is not as critical as ensuring medication compliance. Choice D is helpful but not as essential as medication adherence for the treatment of bipolar disorder.
Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is maladaptive and can hinder the development of appropriate coping skills and access to support systems. It may indicate a lack of healthy coping strategies and social connections, which are important for managing stress effectively. Choice B is a positive coping strategy that promotes self-reflection and emotional expression. Choice C reflects a proactive approach to managing stress through physical activity. Choice D shows a willingness to seek professional help, which is a healthy coping mechanism.
Which of the following are common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)? Select one that does not apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include nausea, insomnia, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction. Weight loss is not a common side effect associated with SSRIs. Therefore, the correct answer is C. While some individuals may experience weight changes while taking SSRIs, weight loss is less common compared to weight gain as a side effect of these medications.
A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect of this medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient is prescribed risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as it is a common side effect of this medication. Weight gain can occur due to metabolic changes and increased appetite associated with risperidone use. Agranulocytosis is a severe decrease in a type of white blood cells, and it is not a common side effect of risperidone. Hair loss and hyperthyroidism are also not typically associated with risperidone use.
Which of the following are symptoms of a panic attack? Select one that does not apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Symptoms of a panic attack can include chest pain, shortness of breath, dizziness, and hot flashes. Normal breathing is not a symptom of a panic attack; instead, individuals experiencing a panic attack may often exhibit rapid or shallow breathing patterns. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choices A, C, and D are typical symptoms associated with panic attacks, making them incorrect answers.
Which behavior is consistent with therapeutic communication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Summarizing the essence of the patient's comments in your own words is a key aspect of therapeutic communication as it demonstrates active listening and understanding. It shows the patient that their words have been heard and understood, fostering a sense of validation and empathy. Offering opinions, interrupting silence, or giving approval may not always align with the principles of therapeutic communication, which focus on patient-centered interactions and empathetic responses.
During pregnancy, a woman is in a relationship with a male who routinely abuses her. Her unborn child may engage in high-risk behavior as a teen as a result of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Maternal stress during pregnancy can have long-term effects on the child's behavior and stress responses. Research shows that exposure to high levels of stress hormones in the womb can influence the developing fetal brain and the child's future behavior, potentially leading to high-risk behaviors during adolescence.
Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching regarding the treatment of major depressive disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice B indicates a need for further teaching because the patient is planning to switch directly from Prozac, an SSRI, to a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) without allowing for a washout period. This abrupt switch poses a risk of serotonin syndrome, which can be life-threatening. It is essential to educate the patient about the importance of consulting healthcare providers before changing medications to prevent potential adverse effects.
During a manic episode, which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a manic episode, individuals may experience heightened energy levels and reduced impulse control. Providing a structured environment with limited stimuli is the most appropriate nursing intervention. This approach helps reduce excessive stimulation and potential triggers for further escalation of manic behavior. It promotes a calming and controlled setting, assisting in managing symptoms and promoting the patient's well-being. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may lead to overstimulation, allowing the patient to engage in physical activities freely (Choice C) could be risky due to impulsivity, and giving detailed tasks (Choice D) might overwhelm the individual.
A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse avoid implementing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, interventions should focus on providing a structured environment, encouraging rest periods, and setting limits on inappropriate behaviors. Allowing the client to engage in stimulating activities may exacerbate the symptoms of mania, such as increased energy, impulsivity, and risk-taking behaviors. Therefore, it is important to avoid encouraging such activities to prevent worsening of manic symptoms.
Which statement is an example of reflection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Reflection involves restating the patient's words or feelings to show understanding and encourage further discussion. Choice B restates the patient's statement, demonstrating active listening and empathy.
A patient with major depressive disorder is started on a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the nurse educate the patient about?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs block acetylcholine receptors, leading to anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this side effect to promote awareness and provide appropriate management strategies, such as maintaining good oral hygiene and staying hydrated. Choice A, hypertension, is not a common side effect of TCAs. Choice B, diarrhea, is not a typical side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause constipation. Choice D, weight loss, is less common with TCAs as they are more likely to cause weight gain.
During an assessment, a client is demonstrating symptoms of moderate anxiety. Which of the following symptoms would be indicative of moderate anxiety?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Palpitations are a common physical symptom seen in clients experiencing moderate anxiety. Fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting can also indicate heightened stress levels. It's important for healthcare providers to recognize these signs and provide appropriate support. While anxiety can manifest in various ways, other indicators of moderate anxiety may include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance. It's crucial for healthcare providers to assess these symptoms to provide effective care and interventions. Laughing inappropriately and nail biting are more commonly associated with nervousness or social discomfort, while fidgeting may signal mild anxiety.
Tatiana has been hospitalized for an acute manic episode. On admission, the nurse suspects lithium toxicity. What assessment findings would indicate the nurse's suspicion as correct?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Ataxia, severe hypotension, and a large volume of dilute urine are classic signs of lithium toxicity. Ataxia refers to a lack of muscle coordination, severe hypotension indicates dangerously low blood pressure, and the large volume of dilute urine is a result of the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine properly, a common feature of lithium toxicity.
Which is an example of the ego defense mechanism of regression?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development for comfort. In this case, an adult throwing a temper tantrum is regressing to a childlike behavior when faced with not getting their way, which is a form of seeking comfort associated with earlier development. Choices A, B, and C do not exemplify regression. Blaming the teacher, becoming hysterical after a traumatic event, or seeking a partner similar to a beloved father are not instances of reverting to earlier developmental stages to cope with stress or conflict.
Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.
A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Weight gain is a common side effect of quetiapine, an atypical antipsychotic. Quetiapine can lead to metabolic changes that may result in weight gain. Monitoring weight regularly is essential to address this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Quetiapine is not typically associated with hypertension, hair loss, or hyperthyroidism as common side effects.
What should the nurse include in patient education for a patient starting on bupropion for major depressive disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patients prescribed bupropion should be educated to avoid consuming alcohol while on this medication to reduce the risk of seizures. Bupropion lowers the seizure threshold, and alcohol can further increase this risk. It is important for patients to understand the potential consequences of combining bupropion with alcohol to ensure their safety and treatment effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking bupropion in the morning does not prevent insomnia; it is not associated with significant weight gain; and it is not a first-line treatment for anxiety.
A client is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering benzodiazepines as prescribed is a crucial intervention in managing alcohol withdrawal. Benzodiazepines help alleviate symptoms such as anxiety, agitation, and seizures commonly seen in alcohol withdrawal. Monitoring vital signs is important to assess the client's physiological stability, but addressing the withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines is a priority to prevent severe complications. Providing a high-protein diet and encouraging fluid intake are important for overall health but do not directly manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
A client is prescribed diazepam (Valium) for anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because clients should avoid alcohol while taking diazepam (Valium) due to potential interactions. Alcohol can increase the sedative effects of diazepam, leading to excessive drowsiness or respiratory depression. Choice B is correct as it reflects the need to avoid alcohol. Choice C is incorrect because diazepam is usually taken regularly, not just when feeling anxious. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping diazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should be done gradually under medical supervision.
Carolina is surprised when her patient does not show for a regularly scheduled appointment. When contacted, the patient states, <I don't need to come see you anymore. I have found a therapy app on my phone that I love.= How should Carolina respond to this news?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Showing interest in the app can build rapport and allow for evaluation of its effectiveness.
Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.
When assessing a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits flat affect and social withdrawal, these symptoms are classified as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Flat affect and social withdrawal are characteristic of negative symptoms in schizophrenia. Negative symptoms involve disruptions to normal emotions and behaviors, such as reduced emotional expression (flat affect) and social withdrawal. These symptoms reflect a decrease or absence of normal functions. Positive symptoms, on the other hand, involve the presence of abnormal behaviors or experiences, such as hallucinations and delusions, which are added to a person's experiences. Cognitive symptoms relate to difficulties with thinking, memory, and processing information, impacting cognition. Mood symptoms involve disturbances in mood regulation, which is distinct from the flat affect seen in negative symptoms.
A client is experiencing progressive changes in memory that have interfered with personal, social, and occupational functioning. The client exhibits poor judgment and has a short attention span. The nurse recognizes these as classic signs of which condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's presentation of progressive memory changes, poor judgment, and attention deficits align with classic signs of Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cognitive decline that significantly impacts daily functioning. While delirium and mania may present with cognitive changes, Alzheimer's is specifically associated with progressive memory loss and cognitive impairment over time.
Carolina is surprised when her patient does not show for a regularly scheduled appointment. When contacted, the patient states, "I don't need to come see you anymore. I have found a therapy app on my phone that I love." How should Carolina respond to this news?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Showing interest in the app can build rapport and allow for evaluation of its effectiveness.
Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.
When assessing a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits flat affect and social withdrawal, these symptoms are classified as:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Flat affect and social withdrawal are characteristic of negative symptoms in schizophrenia. Negative symptoms involve disruptions to normal emotions and behaviors, such as reduced emotional expression (flat affect) and social withdrawal. These symptoms reflect a decrease or absence of normal functions. Positive symptoms, on the other hand, involve the presence of abnormal behaviors or experiences, such as hallucinations and delusions, which are added to a person's experiences. Cognitive symptoms relate to difficulties with thinking, memory, and processing information, impacting cognition. Mood symptoms involve disturbances in mood regulation, which is distinct from the flat affect seen in negative symptoms.
A client is experiencing progressive changes in memory that have interfered with personal, social, and occupational functioning. The client exhibits poor judgment and has a short attention span. The nurse recognizes these as classic signs of which condition?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client's presentation of progressive memory changes, poor judgment, and attention deficits align with classic signs of Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cognitive decline that significantly impacts daily functioning. While delirium and mania may present with cognitive changes, Alzheimer's is specifically associated with progressive memory loss and cognitive impairment over time.
Your time is up
You’ve reached the end of your allocated time, but you can still review the questions and continue navigating the exam.
Restart exam?
Reset progress and restart the exam? Your current score will be saved before your answers are cleared.