ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. You have been working closely with a patient for the past month. Today he tells you he is looking forward to meeting with his new psychiatrist but frowns and avoids eye contact while reporting this to you. Which of the following responses would most likely be therapeutic?
- A. A new psychiatrist is a chance to start fresh; I'm sure it will go well for you.
- B. You say you look forward to the meeting, but you appear anxious or unhappy.
- C. I notice that you frowned and avoided eye contact just now. Don't you feel well?
- D. I get the impression you don't really want to see your psychiatrist—can you tell me why?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the most therapeutic response as it acknowledges the discrepancy between the patient's verbal statement and nonverbal cues. By addressing both the patient's expressed anticipation and the conflicting nonverbal cues of frowning and avoiding eye contact, the responder demonstrates attentiveness to the patient's emotional state and encourages further exploration of underlying feelings. This approach fosters open communication and helps the patient feel understood and supported.
2. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted's wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted's mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:
- A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
- B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
- D. Lurasidone (Latuda)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can be an effective treatment for reducing mania in patients with bipolar disorder who have not responded to medication. In Ted's case, where he has a history of bipolar I disorder, lithium treatment, and manic episodes, ECT may be recommended by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to help manage his symptoms.
3. Which characteristic identified during an assessment serves to support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Female
- B. 7 years old
- C. Comorbid autism diagnosis
- D. Outbursts occur at least once a week
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Characteristics such as age, frequency of outbursts, and occurrence in multiple settings support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. While comorbid conditions like autism can coexist with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, it is not a characteristic that serves to support a diagnosis of this specific disorder.
4. Child protective services have removed 10-year-old Christopher from his parents' home due to neglect. Christopher reveals to the nurse that he considers the woman next door his 'nice' mom, that he loves school, and gets above-average grades. The strongest explanation of this response is:
- A. Temperament
- B. Genetic factors
- C. Resilience
- D. Paradoxical effects of neglect
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Christopher's positive outlook, strong school performance, and forming a bond with the neighbor indicate resilience. Resilience refers to the ability to adapt and thrive despite facing adversity, such as being removed from his parents' home due to neglect. His ability to maintain a positive attitude and excel in school despite the challenging circumstances highlights his resilience.
5. Pablo is a homeless adult who has no family connection. Pablo passed out on the street, and emergency medical services took him to the hospital where he expresses a wish to die. The physician recognizes evidence of substance use problems and mental health issues and recommends inpatient treatment for Pablo. What is the rationale for this treatment choice? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Intermittent supervision is available in inpatient settings.
- B. He requires stabilization of multiple symptoms.
- C. How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?
- D. Medication adherence will be mandated.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because medication adherence being mandated is not a primary rationale for inpatient treatment. The main reasons for recommending inpatient treatment in this scenario include the need for stabilization of multiple symptoms, addressing nutritional and self-care needs, and ensuring safety due to the imminent danger of self-harm. Inpatient settings provide a more intensive level of care and supervision to address these complex issues effectively.
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