Free ATI RN Custom Exams practice for ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1 (ATI RN). Answer 99 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracki
What is a good source of potassium and can be related to increased excretion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Broccoli is a good source of potassium and can contribute to increased excretion. While potassium itself is a mineral and increased excretion can be related to dietary intake, the specific relationship mentioned in the text is about broccoli being a good source of potassium and having a potential impact on excretion.
Which of the following describes the four-step method of assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'It is a circular process of continued nursing care.' The four-step method of assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation is a continuous and cyclical process in nursing care. Choice A is incorrect because the method is not solely problem-focused but involves multiple steps. Choice B is incorrect as it does not capture the structured nature of the four-step method. Choice D is incorrect as it implies a random approach rather than a systematic and organized process.
What is the primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia is to help them live as normal a life as possible. This involves managing symptoms, preventing crises, and promoting overall well-being. While options A, B, and D are important aspects of care, the ultimate goal is to enhance the client's quality of life and support them in leading a fulfilling and active lifestyle despite their condition.
The use of the antibiotic neomycin may decrease the absorption of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Neomycin can interfere with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins such as vitamins A, D, E, and K. Choice A is incorrect because neomycin does not affect the absorption of iron, copper, and zinc. Choice B is incorrect as neomycin does not impact the absorption of protein and amino acids. Choice D is also incorrect as neomycin does not decrease the absorption of water-soluble vitamins like vitamin C and the B vitamins.
In a routine sputum analysis, which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Before sputum collection, it is crucial to use a clean container to prevent specimen contamination. This step is essential to ensure accurate test results and to avoid introducing external particles or bacteria into the sample. Choice B is incorrect because discarding the container if the outside becomes soiled is not a standard practice before collection. Choice C is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with Listerine after collection can introduce unnecessary substances into the specimen. Choice D is incorrect as the amount of sputum needed should be determined by the healthcare provider, not the client.
What is the primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'The client will live as normal a life as possible.' For a client with sickle cell anemia, the primary goal of care is to promote a good quality of life by managing symptoms, preventing crises, and enhancing overall well-being. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on a specific action rather than the overall goal of care. Option B is important but not the primary goal; compliance is a means to achieve better health outcomes. Option D is also important but does not address the holistic approach of helping the client maintain a normal lifestyle despite their condition.
The nurse is preparing the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct interventions to include in the plan of care for a client with fluid volume deficit are monitoring vital signs every two hours until stable, weighing the client in the same clothing at the same time daily, and assessing skin turgor. These interventions are crucial for managing and detecting fluid volume changes. Administering mouth care every eight hours is not directly related to managing fluid volume deficit and does not address the key aspects of monitoring and assessing fluid status, making it an incorrect choice.
The client is diagnosed with hereditary spherocytosis. Which treatment/procedure would the nurse prepare the client to receive?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Splenectomy. Splenectomy is the treatment of choice for hereditary spherocytosis. By removing the spleen, the excessive destruction of red blood cells is reduced, preventing hemolysis and improving anemia. Bone marrow transplant (A) is not a standard treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Frequent blood transfusions (C) may temporarily address anemia but do not treat the underlying cause. Liver biopsy (D) is not indicated as a primary treatment for hereditary spherocytosis.
Under the health services support area concept, how is the medical care under the MEDCOM divided?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Under the health services support area concept, medical care under MEDCOM is divided into eight geographical areas of responsibility. Each of these areas is designated as a health services support region, and they are further subdivided into two or more health service areas. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe how the medical care under MEDCOM is divided.
Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, if committed by a nurse, indicates an error?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When conducting a Clinitest for testing urinary glucose levels, it is essential to add the correct amounts of urine and Clinitest reagent as instructed. Adding more water than urine could dilute the sample, leading to inaccurate test results. It's important to follow the correct ratio of drops specified in the instructions for an accurate reading. Choice A is incorrect as the specimen should be collected before meals for accurate results. Choice B is incorrect as it should be the Clinitest tablet, not the clingiest tablet. Choice D is incorrect as the statement is incomplete and lacks clarity.
Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.
Which dietary change is most beneficial for a patient with hypertension?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Increased fiber intake. A diet high in fiber is beneficial for patients with hypertension as it helps lower blood pressure. Increasing fiber intake can aid in managing hypertension by promoting heart health and overall well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased sodium intake is not recommended for hypertension as it can elevate blood pressure. Decreasing potassium intake is also not advised as potassium is essential for regulating blood pressure. Lastly, increasing cholesterol intake is detrimental for hypertension as it can contribute to cardiovascular issues and worsen the condition.
The nurse prepares to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a newborn with a diagnosis of heart failure and notes that the apical rate is 140 beats per minute. Which nursing action is appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An apical rate of 140 bpm is within the normal range for a newborn. Digoxin is commonly used to treat heart failure by increasing the strength and efficiency of the heart's contractions. Since the heart rate is within the normal range, there is no need to hold the medication or notify the healthcare provider. Rechecking the apical rate in an hour is unnecessary as the heart rate is not alarming. Therefore, the appropriate nursing action is to administer the digoxin.
What is the most crucial and most difficult management skill required of the M6 practical nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct. Effectively managing personnel is indeed the most crucial and difficult management skill required of a practical nurse. This skill involves supervising, motivating, and coordinating the work of other healthcare staff, ensuring optimal patient care. Choices A, B, and C are important tasks but do not necessarily involve the same level of complexity and interpersonal skills required for managing personnel in a healthcare setting.
Performing and supervising therapeutic and preventive procedures that have been planned for a patient is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Implementation. Implementation in nursing care involves the actual performance and supervision of the planned therapeutic and preventive procedures for a patient. Evaluation (choice A) is the step where the effectiveness of the interventions is assessed. Planning (choice B) is the phase where the nursing care plan is developed based on the assessment. Assessment (choice D) is the initial step in the nursing process, involving data collection and analysis to determine the patient's needs.
One of the reasons hospital patients are at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions than they used to be is because:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Hospitalized patients are more acutely ill, often having multiple conditions and treatments, which increases the risk of drug-nutrient interactions. Choice B is incorrect because hospital routines do not specifically interfere with the timing of medications in relation to drug-nutrient interactions. Choice C is incorrect because the toxicity and side effects of drugs do not directly relate to an increased risk of drug-nutrient interactions. Choice D is incorrect as sharing responsibility for monitoring does not inherently increase the risk of drug-nutrient interactions in hospital patients.
In which situation(s) can personal health information be disclosed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Personal health information can be disclosed in various situations. Compliance with legal proceedings allows for disclosure under specific legal requirements. Disclosure for research purposes is permitted in limited circumstances with appropriate approvals. In emergencies, information can be shared with family members or significant others. Therefore, all of the choices are correct as they represent valid scenarios for disclosing personal health information.
A family came to the emergency department with complaints of food poisoning. Which client should the nurse see first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cases of food poisoning, a 2-year-old with reduced urine output is a critical finding indicating dehydration, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. The reduced urine output is a sign of decreased fluid intake or increased fluid loss, putting the child at high risk for dehydration. This client should be seen first to assess hydration status, initiate necessary interventions, and prevent further complications. While the other symptoms presented by the other clients are concerning, the 2-year-old's decreased urine output poses the most immediate threat to their well-being.
The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus about diet. Which diet selection indicates the client understands the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because a smoked turkey sandwich with celery sticks and unsweetened tea is a healthier option for someone with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Turkey is a lean protein source, celery sticks are low in calories and carbs, and unsweetened tea is a better choice than sugary beverages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A includes high-carb and high-sugar items like potato chips and diet cola, which are not ideal for diabetes management. Choice B contains a high-carb pizza and milk, which may not be suitable for controlling blood sugar levels. Choice D includes fried onion rings and cola, which are high in unhealthy fats and sugars, making it a poor choice for a diabetic diet.
Which referral would be most appropriate for the client diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, the occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in helping clients with conditions like thoracic outlet syndrome by providing exercises, adaptations, and strategies to improve function and reduce symptoms. Choice A, the physical therapist, may also be involved in treatment, but occupational therapists focus more on functional activities for daily living affected by the condition. Choices B and D are not the most appropriate referrals for thoracic outlet syndrome as they do not directly address the functional limitations associated with this condition.
During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into what type of organization?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into a TDA (Table of Distribution and Allowances) type of organization. TDA defines the structure and personnel requirements of a unit. Choice A, DVA (Department of Veterans Affairs), is not the typical organizational structure for military hospital personnel. Choice B, TOE (Table of Organization and Equipment), refers to the organization and equipment of a unit, not the personnel organization. Choice D, NDMS (National Disaster Medical System), is a federal program that coordinates medical responses to disasters and emergencies, but it is not the primary organizational structure for military hospital personnel during peacetime.
Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. The M6 practical nurse is primarily responsible for performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (B), and managing ward or unit operations (C). The duties mentioned in choices A, B, and C align with the roles typically assigned to a practical nurse, making them incorrect answers for this question.
Which of the following is a process of heat loss that involves the transfer of heat from one surface to another?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Conduction is the process of heat transfer that occurs between objects or substances that are in direct contact with each other. In this process, heat is transferred from a hotter surface to a cooler surface through direct contact. This type of heat transfer does not involve the movement of the substances themselves, only the transfer of thermal energy. Radiation (Choice A) is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves, while convection (Choice C) is the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids. Evaporation (Choice D) is a cooling process that involves the phase change of a liquid into a gas.
Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer due to its impact on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is more associated with oral and throat cancers, not pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is actually considered a protective factor against pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be a risk factor for other types of cancer but is not strongly linked to pancreatic cancer.
The nurse is teaching basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to individuals in the community. What is the correct order of basic CPR steps?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct order of basic CPR steps is as follows: first, ensure the scene is safe to approach, then assess the individual's responsiveness. After confirming the need for help, start chest compressions, then provide two rescue breaths. Option B, 'Give two rescue breaths,' is incorrect as chest compressions should be initiated before giving rescue breaths. Option C, 'Look, listen, and feel for breathing,' is also incorrect as immediate chest compressions are crucial in CPR. Option D, 'Begin chest compressions,' is partially correct but misses the crucial initial steps of ensuring scene safety and assessing responsiveness.
What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, GH (General Hospital), as it is the COMMZ level hospital that focuses on treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital) primarily provides surgical care close to the front lines. CSH (Combat Support Hospital) offers more comprehensive surgical and medical care than FSB but does not focus on rehabilitation like GH. FH (Field Hospital) provides initial medical care and stabilization before patients are evacuated to higher-level facilities.
The HCP orders cultures of the urethral urine, bladder urine, and prostatic fluid. Which instructions would the nurse teach to achieve the first two (2) specimens?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another. This method allows for accurate cultures of urethral and bladder urine. Choice B is incorrect because it does not specify the correct method for collecting urethral and bladder urine separately. Choice C is incorrect because prostatic fluid is a separate specimen that does not require prostatic massage for collection. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests collecting a routine urine specimen, which does not fulfill the HCP's orders for specific cultures.
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Ensuring that soldiers are utilized in their MOS'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Accountability.' Accountability involves ensuring that individuals are utilized effectively in their assigned roles, which aligns with the task of 'Ensuring that soldiers are utilized in their MOS.' Personal/professional development (choice B) focuses on personal growth and skill enhancement rather than role utilization. Individual training (choice C) pertains to specific skill development rather than overall role utilization. Military appearance/physical condition (choice D) relates to physical fitness and appearance standards, not role assignments.
During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into what type of organization?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized under a Table of Distribution and Allowances (TDA) structure. This organizational type outlines the personnel positions and equipment allocation within a unit. Choice A, 'DVA,' refers to the Department of Veterans Affairs and is not the organizational structure for military hospital personnel. Choice B, 'TOE,' stands for Table of Organization and Equipment which is more commonly used in a wartime setting to define unit structure and equipment requirements. Choice D, 'NDMS,' refers to the National Disaster Medical System which is not the typical organization for CONUS hospital military personnel during peacetime.
At the end of the Practical Nurse Course, the student receives a structured review to prepare the student for which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The structured review at the end of the Practical Nurse Course aims to prepare students for the practical nurse licensure examination. This exam is a crucial step for individuals to become licensed practical nurses, ensuring they meet the required standards and qualifications to practice in the field. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the focus of the review is specifically geared towards preparing students for the licensure examination, not for other courses, administrative processes, or duty assignments.
Interacting with the patient and their family to obtain subjective information is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Assessment. Assessment in nursing involves obtaining subjective information from the patient and their family to gather data about the patient's health status. This step is crucial as it helps identify the patient's needs, strengths, and areas requiring intervention. Choice A, Evaluation, is incorrect as evaluation comes after the implementation of the care plan to determine its effectiveness. Choice B, Planning, is also incorrect as it involves developing a plan of care based on the assessment data. Choice C, Implementation, is the phase where the nursing interventions are carried out based on the established care plan.
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Educate personnel on UCMJ'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Personal/professional development. Educating personnel on UCMJ falls under the category of personal/professional development as it involves enhancing their understanding of the Uniform Code of Military Justice. This category focuses on improving individuals' knowledge and skills related to their professional roles and responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to educating personnel on UCMJ. Accountability pertains to being answerable for one's actions, individual training focuses on specific skill development, and military appearance/physical condition relates to grooming standards and fitness rather than UCMJ education.
What condition should a patient on long-term steroid therapy be monitored for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct! Patients on long-term steroid therapy should be monitored for osteoporosis. Prolonged use of steroids can lead to decreased bone density, increasing the risk of osteoporosis. Hyperglycemia is more commonly associated with steroid-induced diabetes rather than long-term steroid use. Hypothyroidism is not a typical complication of long-term steroid therapy. While steroids can contribute to hypertension, osteoporosis is a more prominent concern in this scenario.
How long is the Practical Nurse Course training program conducted in phases for?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for a comprehensive training program that covers all necessary aspects of practical nursing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific length of time associated with the Practical Nurse Course.
What is the best way to manage a patient's intake of dietary fiber?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct way to manage a patient's intake of dietary fiber is to increase it gradually. This approach helps prevent gastrointestinal discomfort that can occur when fiber intake is suddenly increased. Choice B is incorrect because sudden increases in fiber intake can lead to bloating, gas, and other digestive issues. Choice C is incorrect as decreasing fiber intake abruptly can disrupt bowel regularity and cause constipation. Choice D is incorrect because maintaining a high intake of fiber without considering the patient's current levels can also cause digestive problems.
The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. When assessing the client, the nurse is unable to auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when unable to auscultate a pericardial friction rub in a client diagnosed with pericarditis is to ask the client to lean forward and listen again. This position brings the heart closer to the chest wall, making it easier to detect a friction rub if present. Notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary at this point as it may just be a matter of positioning for better auscultation. Documenting that the pericarditis has resolved is premature without proper assessment. Preparing to insert a unilateral chest tube is not indicated based on the absence of a friction rub.
What is established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ambulance exchange points are established when threats to air resources prevent evacuation by air from forward units. These points serve as locations where patients can be transferred between ground and air ambulances. Area support medical battalions (Choice A) refer to medical units that provide medical support to large areas and are not specifically related to evacuation. TOE units (Choice B) and field hospitals (Choice D) are not typically established in response to threats to air resources affecting evacuation.
The nurse is analyzing laboratory values for the assigned clients. Which finding, based on the client's medical history, indicates the need for immediate follow-up?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An HbA1c of 7.0% in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates poor long-term glucose control, necessitating immediate follow-up. Choice A, chronic kidney disease with a serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL, though concerning, does not indicate an immediate need for follow-up. Choice C, heart failure with a BNP of 140 pg/mL, may require monitoring but not immediate follow-up. Choice D, a male client with anemia and normal hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, does not warrant immediate attention based on the provided information.
What type of food should a patient taking anticoagulants be cautious about consuming?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patients taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming high-vitamin K foods. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants by affecting blood clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly interact with the action of anticoagulants.
Neomycin may decrease absorption of which nutrient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Fat-soluble vitamins. Neomycin is known to interfere with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. This is because neomycin can disrupt the normal gut flora responsible for the absorption of these vitamins. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because neomycin primarily affects the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, not minerals, proteins, amino acids, or water-soluble vitamins.
The client is diagnosed with pericarditis. When assessing the client, the nurse is unable to auscultate a friction rub. Which action should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to implement when unable to auscultate a pericardial friction rub in a client diagnosed with pericarditis is to ask the client to lean forward and listen again. Leaning forward can help bring the heart closer to the chest wall, making it easier to detect the rub. Option A (Notifying the healthcare provider) is incorrect because further assessment is needed before escalating the situation. Option B (Documenting that the pericarditis has resolved) is incorrect as the absence of a friction rub does not necessarily mean resolution. Option D (Preparing to insert a unilateral chest tube) is incorrect as this intervention is not indicated for the absence of a friction rub.
Where do most peptic ulcers occur?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Most peptic ulcers occur in the duodenum, particularly in cases of duodenal ulcers. The correct answer is the duodenum because it is the most common site for peptic ulcers to develop. Peptic ulcers rarely occur in the esophagus and jejunum, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.
The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Norepinephrine is indeed secreted by the adrenal medulla, making choice C the correct answer. The adrenal medulla is part of the adrenal glands, located on top of the kidneys. Norepinephrine is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response, helping to prepare the body to react to stress. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as norepinephrine is not secreted by the pancreas, adrenal cortex, or the anterior pituitary gland.
The HCP orders cultures of the urethral urine, bladder urine, and prostatic fluid. Which instructions would the nurse teach to achieve the first two (2) specimens?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To obtain accurate cultures of urethral and bladder urine, the nurse should instruct the patient to collect the first 15 mL of urine in one container and the subsequent 50 mL in another. This method ensures that the specimens are separated appropriately for analysis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because collecting three early morning urine specimens, massaging the prostate, or collecting a routine urine specimen would not provide the specific separation of urethral and bladder urine required for this particular test.
Determining nursing care priorities is a part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Planning in nursing involves setting priorities based on the identified patient needs, establishing goals, and developing a plan of care. Evaluation involves assessing the effectiveness of the care provided, implementation is the phase where the care plan is carried out, and assessment is the initial step of collecting data to identify the patient's needs. Therefore, in the context of determining nursing care priorities, the correct step is Planning (choice B).
The nurse is preparing a postoperative nursing care plan for the client recovering from a hemorrhoidectomy. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Establishing rapport with the client is crucial in postoperative care to create a trusting relationship, reduce embarrassment, and enhance comfort during assessments. Encouraging the client to lie in the lithotomy position is not recommended after a hemorrhoidectomy as it can be uncomfortable and may disrupt wound healing. Milking the tube inserted during surgery is not a standard practice and could lead to complications. Digitally dilating the rectal sphincter is not indicated post-hemorrhoidectomy and can cause harm to the client.
What is the mission of the Army Medical Department?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Maintain the health of the Army and preserve its combat effectiveness.' This mission statement reflects the primary goal of the Army Medical Department, which is to ensure that military personnel remain healthy and fit for duty to preserve the Army's fighting strength. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not capture the core purpose of the Army Medical Department, which is focused on the health and readiness of the military forces, rather than performing annual physical examinations, responding to disasters, or providing education and training.
Which referral would be most appropriate for the client diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, the occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in helping individuals with activities of daily living, ergonomic assessments, and adaptive techniques. In the case of thoracic outlet syndrome, an occupational therapist can provide exercises and adaptations to improve the client's function and alleviate symptoms. Choosing the physical therapist (choice A) may also be beneficial for rehabilitation exercises, but occupational therapists focus more on functional activities. Referring to a thoracic surgeon (choice B) would be more appropriate for surgical interventions rather than initial management. Referring to a social worker (choice D) may not directly address the physical symptoms and functional limitations associated with thoracic outlet syndrome.
Which signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with an insulinoma?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Insulinomas lead to excessive insulin production, causing hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis. These symptoms result from the low blood sugar levels. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor (choice B) are more indicative of dehydration. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia (choice C) are classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, not insulinomas. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot (choice D) are not typical symptoms of insulinomas.
A client scheduled for surgery cannot sign the operative consent form because he has been sedated with opioid analgesics. The nurse should take which best action regarding the informed consent?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In situations where a client is unable to sign the consent form, obtaining a telephone consent from a family member, with the consent being witnessed by two healthcare providers, is the best course of action. This ensures that the client's best interests are considered and that proper authorization is obtained. Option A, obtaining a court order, is not necessary in this scenario and could delay the surgery. Option B, signing the consent on behalf of the client, is not appropriate as it may raise ethical and legal concerns. Option C, sending the client to surgery without a signed consent form, is not advisable as it violates the principles of informed consent and places the client at risk.
For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A consultation with a Rapid Response Team (RRT) is most appropriate for the 45-year-old client described in Choice A. This client is 2 years post kidney transplant, presenting with no urine output for 6 hours, a temperature of 101.4°F, heart rate of 98 beats per minute, respirations of 20 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 88/72 mm Hg, along with restlessness. These clinical signs are indicative of possible acute renal failure and sepsis, requiring immediate intervention by the rapid response team. Choices B, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency and severity of symptoms as the client in Choice A, making them less appropriate for consultation with the RRT.
The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clinical dietitians and pharmacists work together to manage drug-nutrient interactions. They have the expertise to understand how medications and nutrients can interact in the body, potentially affecting the effectiveness of treatment. Physicians and nurses may be involved in patient care, but when it comes to monitoring drug-nutrient interactions, the specialized knowledge of clinical dietitians and pharmacists is crucial. Nurses and physicians typically focus more on administering medications and managing overall patient care, rather than the specific interactions between drugs and nutrients.
What is the best position to measure the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When measuring the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema, the best position to ensure accurate and consistent measurements is the dorsal recumbent position. This position allows the legs to be comfortably positioned, with the individual lying on their back and legs extended. This facilitates accurate measurement of the circumference without the influence of gravity. Sitting and standing positions may not provide optimal conditions for accurate leg circumference measurements as they may not allow the legs to be fully extended. The supine position, although similar to dorsal recumbent, may not provide the same level of comfort and accuracy in leg circumference measurement for a client with bipedal edema.
In managing cystic fibrosis, which nutrition therapy is crucial for patients with pancreatic insufficiency?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In cystic fibrosis patients with pancreatic insufficiency, pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy is vital for aiding digestion. This therapy helps compensate for the decreased production of digestive enzymes by the pancreas, enabling the proper breakdown and absorption of nutrients. Options A, B, and C are not the primary focus of nutrition therapy for cystic fibrosis patients with pancreatic insufficiency.
For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low-fat diet is the most appropriate for a patient with a history of liver disease. This diet helps reduce liver stress and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein and high-carbohydrate diets can strain the liver and worsen the condition. A low-protein diet may be necessary in cases of liver disease with hepatic encephalopathy, but in general, a low-fat diet is recommended to support liver function and overall health.
Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can occur due to the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus. This gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia. Choice A is incorrect because iron absorption is not necessarily reduced in hiatal hernia. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turnover rate is not directly related to the development of anemia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods is not a common reason for anemia in patients with hiatal hernia.
Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 68WM6. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties. Choice A (68A30) does not correspond to a primary enlisted personnel role in nursing. Choice C (Physician assistant) is not an enlisted personnel role but rather a separate healthcare profession. Choice D (6.80E+21) is a numerical value and does not relate to enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties.
The nurse understands that which characteristics are of anthrax? Select all that apply.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct characteristics of anthrax are that cutaneous anthrax causes black eschar lesions, and flu-like symptoms are typical of pulmonary anthrax. Choice B is incorrect because it only includes information about cutaneous anthrax lesions but doesn't cover the flu-like symptoms of pulmonary anthrax. Choice C is incorrect as gastrointestinal anthrax does not cause 'blood anthrax,' it causes symptoms like severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. Choice D is incorrect as flu-like symptoms are associated with pulmonary anthrax, not with gastrointestinal anthrax.
Who is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on military occupational specialty-specific medical training?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The Physician Assistant is the first individual in the combat health support chain to make medically substantiated decisions based on their military occupational specialty-specific medical training. While physicians are highly trained medical professionals, in the context of combat health support, the Physician Assistant is typically the frontline provider who directly applies their specific military medical training to make decisions. Combat medics and combat lifesavers may provide critical care in the field, but they do not have the same level of training and scope of practice as a Physician Assistant in this context, making them less likely to be the first to make medically substantiated decisions.
When assessing the integumentary system of a client with anorexia nervosa, which finding would support the diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Dry, brittle hair. Dry, brittle hair is a common sign of malnutrition, often seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Preoccupation with calories (choice A) is more related to the psychological aspect of anorexia rather than a physical finding. Thick body hair (choice B) is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. A sore tongue (choice C) can be seen in conditions like vitamin deficiencies or oral health issues but is not specific to anorexia nervosa.
What signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with an insulinoma?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis.' Insulinomas cause hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin production, leading to symptoms such as nervousness (from the sympathetic response to hypoglycemia), jitteriness, and diaphoresis (sweating). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor (Choice B) are not typical signs of insulinoma. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia (Choice C) are classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, not insulinoma. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot (Choice D) are more indicative of hyperthyroidism or a hypermetabolic state, rather than an insulinoma presentation.
A client with type 1 diabetes is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and initially treated with intravenous fluids followed by an IV bolus of regular insulin. The nurse anticipates that the practitioner will prescribe a continuous infusion of insulin of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Novolin R (Regular insulin) because it is used for continuous infusion to treat diabetic ketoacidosis. Novolin R has a rapid onset of action, making it suitable for this acute situation. Novolin L insulin (Choice A) is not typically used for continuous infusion in diabetic ketoacidosis. Novolin N insulin (Choice C) is an intermediate-acting insulin and is not ideal for rapid correction needed in diabetic ketoacidosis. Novolin U insulin (Choice D) is an ultra-long-acting insulin and is not appropriate for the immediate correction required in this scenario.
The nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. Which intervention is the priority when caring for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Performing active range of motion exercises is the priority intervention for a client on strict bed rest. These exercises help prevent complications such as thromboembolism and muscle atrophy by promoting circulation and maintaining muscle strength. Encouraging liquids, elevating the head of the bed, and providing a high-fiber diet are important interventions but not the priority when compared to preventing serious complications associated with immobility.
What is the combat health support system in the field designed to do?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The combat health support system in the field is primarily designed to project, sustain, and protect the health of soldiers during war and other operations. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses solely on evacuation and delaying return to duty, missing the broader scope of health support. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions rearward evacuation and reassignment, which is not the sole purpose of the combat health support system. Choice D is also incorrect as it emphasizes far rear area care and delayed return to duty, neglecting the comprehensive nature of health support in combat situations.
The type of lipoprotein that carries cholesterol from tissues to the liver for excretion is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, High-density lipoprotein (HDL). HDL is known as the 'good' cholesterol and plays a crucial role in transporting cholesterol from tissues back to the liver for excretion. This process helps in reducing the buildup of cholesterol in the bloodstream, thus lowering the risk of heart diseases. Very low-density lipoprotein (Option A), Intermediate-density lipoprotein (Option B), and Low-density lipoprotein (Option C) are not responsible for carrying cholesterol back to the liver for excretion like HDL does. Instead, they are associated with different functions related to cholesterol transportation within the body.
A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client's fluid status?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Weighing the client daily at the same time each day is the most accurate method for monitoring fluid balance. Changes in body weight can indicate fluid retention or loss. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output (choice A) is important but may not reflect total body fluid status accurately. Assessing vital signs (choice C) and checking the client's lungs for crackles (choice D) are important assessments but do not directly provide the most accurate monitoring of fluid status.
In which situation(s) does the nurse act as a client advocate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because all the situations listed reflect aspects of client advocacy. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing ensures privacy and dignity for the client, which is an essential part of advocacy. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client involves advocating for the client's needs and preferences. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only is another way the nurse advocates for the client by safeguarding their confidentiality and promoting proper communication. Choices A, B, and C all demonstrate different aspects of advocacy, making option D the correct choice.
Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client's medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is option B: Call the practitioner, report the client's symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client is displaying symptoms that indicate potential complications, such as internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Option A is incorrect because the client's condition suggests a more urgent need for assessment. Option C is inappropriate as it does not address the seriousness of the client's symptoms. Option D is dangerous and could exacerbate any underlying issue the client may be experiencing.
Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Enteral feedings are commonly used in patients with Crohn's disease during acute exacerbations to provide adequate nutrition while resting the bowel. Acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, and ulcerative colitis in remission wouldn't typically require enteral feedings as the primary nutritional support. Acute cholecystitis may necessitate fasting and intravenous fluids, hepatic encephalopathy may require dietary modifications but not enteral feedings, and patients with ulcerative colitis in remission usually have their nutritional needs met through a regular diet.
The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with colon cancer who is scheduled for a colostomy the next day. Which behavior indicates the best method of applying adult teaching principles?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A is the best method of applying adult teaching principles because repeating information and addressing the client's questions as they arise is effective for reinforcing learning in adults. This approach allows for clarification of doubts and ensures that the client understands the information provided. Choice B is incorrect as teaching all the information in one session may overwhelm the client and hinder retention. Choice C is incorrect as using medical terms without ensuring the client's understanding may lead to confusion. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the client to ask questions may result in missed opportunities to address important information proactively.
Before administering an MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine to a 15-month-old, which question should the nurse ask the mother of the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct question the nurse should ask the mother before administering an MMR vaccine to a 15-month-old is whether the child is allergic to any antibiotics. This is crucial because vaccines like MMR contain components that the child could be allergic to, such as neomycin. Checking for antibiotic allergies is essential to prevent adverse reactions to the vaccine. The other options are less relevant in this context. Asking about sore throats, eating habits, or exposure to infections does not directly impact the administration of the MMR vaccine.
The nurse supervises care of a client who is receiving enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because elevating the head of the bed reduces the risk of aspiration, and warming the formula to room temperature helps prevent discomfort and complications. Choice A is incorrect as only licensed healthcare professionals should aspirate and measure the amount of gastric aspirate. Choice B is correct as it helps prevent aspiration. Choice C is correct as warming the formula can prevent discomfort.
Which nursing action(s) can result in disciplinary action by state boards of nursing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Disclosing client health information to unauthorized individuals, such as a client's neighbor (choice A) or improper delegation of nursing tasks to unlicensed personnel like UAPs (choice B), are violations of patient confidentiality and safety. Releasing client health information to the client's durable power of attorney (choice C) is a legal and appropriate action, not warranting disciplinary action. Therefore, choices A and B can result in disciplinary action by state boards of nursing, making option D the correct answer.
The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering the medication as the blood pressure is within a normal range for a client with essential hypertension. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C suggests a potential side effect of an ACE inhibitor, not a beta blocker.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the client's sacrum for dependent edema is crucial in the care plan for nephritic syndrome as it is common due to protein loss. Dependent edema occurs as a result of decreased oncotic pressure from protein loss in the urine. Monitoring urine for bright-red bleeding (choice A) is more relevant to conditions like glomerulonephritis. Evaluating calorie count or protein intake (choice B) is important for other conditions but not specifically for nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level (choice D) is not typically part of the immediate care plan for nephritic syndrome.
Which instructions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud's phenomenon?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client diagnosed with Raynaud's phenomenon is to wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure. This is essential in preventing vasospasms triggered by cold temperatures, which can worsen symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice A is incorrect because exacerbations can occur in any season. Choice B is irrelevant and not directly related to managing Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice D is also incorrect as sunlight exposure does not significantly impact Raynaud's phenomenon.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client's sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.
During the admission interview, which question should the nurse ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: "Have you experienced any problems having sexual intercourse?" Aorto-iliac disease can lead to impaired blood flow to the pelvis and lower extremities, potentially causing sexual dysfunction. The other choices (A, B, and C) are less relevant to the specific effects of aorto-iliac disease on the client's health. While choice A may relate to discomfort, it does not directly address the impact of the disease on sexual function. Choices B and C are more general and do not specifically target the potential issues related to aorto-iliac disease.
A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client's fluid status?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Weighing the client daily at the same time each day is the most accurate method for monitoring fluid balance. Changes in body weight can reflect fluid retention or loss. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate changes in fluid status. Assessing vital signs (Choice C) can offer some information but may not be as specific to fluid status as daily weighing. Checking the client's lungs for crackles (Choice D) is more related to assessing respiratory status rather than direct fluid monitoring.
The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client's presentation of acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood indicates a potential gastrointestinal bleeding emergency. Assessing the client's vital signs is essential to monitor their hemodynamic status. Starting an IV with an 18-gauge needle is crucial to establish access for potential fluid resuscitation or blood transfusion. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation and could potentially delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the correct interventions for the nurse to implement are to assess the client's vital signs and start an IV, making option D the most appropriate choice. Options A and B are correct because they are essential initial steps in managing gastrointestinal bleeding. Option C is incorrect as iced saline lavage is not indicated and may not address the urgent needs of the client in this critical situation.
The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip before initiating Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Checking the client's INR before starting Coumadin is important but not the immediate action required. Clarifying the order with the healthcare provider is not necessary as both medications are commonly used together.
The nurse has given post-procedure instructions to a client who underwent a colonoscopy. Evaluation of learning would be evident if the client makes which statement(s)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Mild tenderness, a light diet initially, and gas or bloating are expected after a colonoscopy.
A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client's fluid status?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Weighing the client daily at the same time each day is the most accurate method for monitoring fluid balance. Changes in body weight can indicate fluid retention or loss. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output (choice A) is important but may not reflect total body fluid status accurately. Assessing vital signs (choice C) and checking the client's lungs for crackles (choice D) are important assessments but do not directly provide the most accurate monitoring of fluid status.
In which situation(s) does the nurse act as a client advocate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because all the situations listed reflect aspects of client advocacy. Pulling the curtain around the client's bed while changing a dressing ensures privacy and dignity for the client, which is an essential part of advocacy. Contacting the health care provider to request a meeting for the client involves advocating for the client's needs and preferences. Ensuring access to medical information by appropriate personnel only is another way the nurse advocates for the client by safeguarding their confidentiality and promoting proper communication. Choices A, B, and C all demonstrate different aspects of advocacy, making option D the correct choice.
Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client's medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is option B: Call the practitioner, report the client's symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client is displaying symptoms that indicate potential complications, such as internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Option A is incorrect because the client's condition suggests a more urgent need for assessment. Option C is inappropriate as it does not address the seriousness of the client's symptoms. Option D is dangerous and could exacerbate any underlying issue the client may be experiencing.
Enteral feedings may be appropriate for patients with:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Enteral feedings are commonly used in patients with Crohn's disease during acute exacerbations to provide adequate nutrition while resting the bowel. Acute cholecystitis, hepatic encephalopathy, and ulcerative colitis in remission wouldn't typically require enteral feedings as the primary nutritional support. Acute cholecystitis may necessitate fasting and intravenous fluids, hepatic encephalopathy may require dietary modifications but not enteral feedings, and patients with ulcerative colitis in remission usually have their nutritional needs met through a regular diet.
The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with colon cancer who is scheduled for a colostomy the next day. Which behavior indicates the best method of applying adult teaching principles?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choice A is the best method of applying adult teaching principles because repeating information and addressing the client's questions as they arise is effective for reinforcing learning in adults. This approach allows for clarification of doubts and ensures that the client understands the information provided. Choice B is incorrect as teaching all the information in one session may overwhelm the client and hinder retention. Choice C is incorrect as using medical terms without ensuring the client's understanding may lead to confusion. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for the client to ask questions may result in missed opportunities to address important information proactively.
Before administering an MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine to a 15-month-old, which question should the nurse ask the mother of the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct question the nurse should ask the mother before administering an MMR vaccine to a 15-month-old is whether the child is allergic to any antibiotics. This is crucial because vaccines like MMR contain components that the child could be allergic to, such as neomycin. Checking for antibiotic allergies is essential to prevent adverse reactions to the vaccine. The other options are less relevant in this context. Asking about sore throats, eating habits, or exposure to infections does not directly impact the administration of the MMR vaccine.
The nurse supervises care of a client who is receiving enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because elevating the head of the bed reduces the risk of aspiration, and warming the formula to room temperature helps prevent discomfort and complications. Choice A is incorrect as only licensed healthcare professionals should aspirate and measure the amount of gastric aspirate. Choice B is correct as it helps prevent aspiration. Choice C is correct as warming the formula can prevent discomfort.
Which nursing action(s) can result in disciplinary action by state boards of nursing?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Disclosing client health information to unauthorized individuals, such as a client's neighbor (choice A) or improper delegation of nursing tasks to unlicensed personnel like UAPs (choice B), are violations of patient confidentiality and safety. Releasing client health information to the client's durable power of attorney (choice C) is a legal and appropriate action, not warranting disciplinary action. Therefore, choices A and B can result in disciplinary action by state boards of nursing, making option D the correct answer.
The nurse is administering a beta blocker to the client diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which data would cause the nurse to question administering the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A beta blocker should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60, as it can further decrease the heart rate. Choice A is not a reason to question administering the medication as the blood pressure is within a normal range for a client with essential hypertension. Choice B is not directly related to the administration of a beta blocker. Choice C suggests a potential side effect of an ACE inhibitor, not a beta blocker.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessing the client's sacrum for dependent edema is crucial in the care plan for nephritic syndrome as it is common due to protein loss. Dependent edema occurs as a result of decreased oncotic pressure from protein loss in the urine. Monitoring urine for bright-red bleeding (choice A) is more relevant to conditions like glomerulonephritis. Evaluating calorie count or protein intake (choice B) is important for other conditions but not specifically for nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level (choice D) is not typically part of the immediate care plan for nephritic syndrome.
Which instructions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud's phenomenon?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for a client diagnosed with Raynaud's phenomenon is to wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure. This is essential in preventing vasospasms triggered by cold temperatures, which can worsen symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice A is incorrect because exacerbations can occur in any season. Choice B is irrelevant and not directly related to managing Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice D is also incorrect as sunlight exposure does not significantly impact Raynaud's phenomenon.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client's sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.
During the admission interview, which question should the nurse ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: "Have you experienced any problems having sexual intercourse?" Aorto-iliac disease can lead to impaired blood flow to the pelvis and lower extremities, potentially causing sexual dysfunction. The other choices (A, B, and C) are less relevant to the specific effects of aorto-iliac disease on the client's health. While choice A may relate to discomfort, it does not directly address the impact of the disease on sexual function. Choices B and C are more general and do not specifically target the potential issues related to aorto-iliac disease.
A client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Which nursing intervention ensures the most accurate monitoring of the client's fluid status?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Weighing the client daily at the same time each day is the most accurate method for monitoring fluid balance. Changes in body weight can reflect fluid retention or loss. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate changes in fluid status. Assessing vital signs (Choice C) can offer some information but may not be as specific to fluid status as daily weighing. Checking the client's lungs for crackles (Choice D) is more related to assessing respiratory status rather than direct fluid monitoring.
The client is admitted to the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric pain and reports vomiting a large amount of bright red blood at home. Which interventions should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In this scenario, the client's presentation of acute epigastric pain and vomiting bright red blood indicates a potential gastrointestinal bleeding emergency. Assessing the client's vital signs is essential to monitor their hemodynamic status. Starting an IV with an 18-gauge needle is crucial to establish access for potential fluid resuscitation or blood transfusion. Beginning iced saline lavage is not appropriate in this situation and could potentially delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the correct interventions for the nurse to implement are to assess the client's vital signs and start an IV, making option D the most appropriate choice. Options A and B are correct because they are essential initial steps in managing gastrointestinal bleeding. Option C is incorrect as iced saline lavage is not indicated and may not address the urgent needs of the client in this critical situation.
The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip before initiating Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Checking the client's INR before starting Coumadin is important but not the immediate action required. Clarifying the order with the healthcare provider is not necessary as both medications are commonly used together.
The nurse has given post-procedure instructions to a client who underwent a colonoscopy. Evaluation of learning would be evident if the client makes which statement(s)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Mild tenderness, a light diet initially, and gas or bloating are expected after a colonoscopy.
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