ATI RN

1. What is the first action to take for a patient experiencing a seizure?

• A. Administer anticonvulsant medication
• B. Protect the patient's head
• C. Insert an oral airway
• D. Restrain the patient

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The first action a nurse should take for a patient experiencing a seizure is to protect the patient's head. This is crucial to prevent head injuries during the seizure. Administering anticonvulsant medication may be necessary but is not the first action. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury as the patient may bite down during a seizure. Restraint is not recommended as it can lead to further harm.

2. What is the most important nursing action for a patient experiencing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Administer anticoagulants
• B. Encourage ambulation
• C. Apply compression stockings
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering anticoagulants is the most crucial nursing action for a patient experiencing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Encouraging ambulation, applying compression stockings, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important interventions in managing DVT, but administering anticoagulants takes priority as it directly targets the clotting process and prevents clot progression.

3. A patient is being cared for by a nurse who has a history of angina and is experiencing chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
• B. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with a history of angina experiencing chest pain, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. This helps in assessing for myocardial infarction, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the healthcare provider can be important interventions but obtaining the ECG comes first to determine the presence of myocardial infarction and guide further management.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours
• B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• C. Heart rate of 94/min
• D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.

5. A client with hypertension is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will choose processed meats for meals.
• B. I will eat canned vegetables to reduce my sodium intake.
• C. I will eat fresh fruits and vegetables each day.
• D. I will increase my intake of canned soups.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Choosing fresh fruits and vegetables is a healthy choice for someone with hypertension as they are low in sodium and high in nutrients. Processed meats (A) are high in sodium and unhealthy fats, which can worsen hypertension. Canned vegetables (B) often have added sodium, so fresh is a better choice. Canned soups (D) are typically high in sodium and should be limited in a hypertensive diet.