Free ATI RN Exit practice for ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 (ATI RN). Answer 80 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress trackin
A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia and is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates the need for suctioning?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate. An increased respiratory rate suggests the client is having difficulty clearing secretions and may require suctioning. Oxygen saturation of 96% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. Clear lung sounds suggest good air entry without the need for suctioning. A productive cough, although a symptom of pneumonia, does not directly indicate the need for suctioning.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL.' An elevated serum creatinine level indicates worsening kidney function and impaired renal clearance, which should be reported to the provider promptly. Choice A, 'Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL,' is within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not indicate acute kidney injury. Choice B, 'Urine output of 45 mL/hr,' is a low urine output but does not directly reflect kidney function decline. Choice D, 'Calcium 9 mg/dL,' is within the normal calcium range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not specifically indicative of acute kidney injury.
A patient is being cared for by a nurse who has a history of angina and is experiencing chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a patient with a history of angina experiencing chest pain, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. This helps in assessing for myocardial infarction, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the healthcare provider can be important interventions but obtaining the ECG comes first to determine the presence of myocardial infarction and guide further management.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to take their pulse before taking digoxin. This is important to monitor for bradycardia, a potential side effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because digoxin is usually taken in the morning. Option C is unrelated to digoxin therapy, as high potassium foods are usually restricted in clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics. Option D is incorrect because digoxin should not be taken with antacids as they can affect its absorption.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, International normalized ratio (INR). INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the INR helps assess how well the medication is working to prevent blood clots. Choices A, B, and C are not specific indicators for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count evaluates the clotting ability of blood, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. While these values are important for overall health assessment, they do not directly reflect the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.
Which lab value should be monitored in patients receiving heparin therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor aPTT in patients receiving heparin therapy. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to assess the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin and to prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count (Choice C) monitoring is essential for detecting heparin-induced thrombocytopenia rather than assessing heparin therapy itself. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to measure the client's abdominal girth daily. Measuring abdominal girth helps monitor for ascites, a common complication of cirrhosis. Limiting sodium intake is important in cirrhosis but there is no specific value given, making choice A less precise. Monitoring urine specific gravity is not directly related to cirrhosis management, making choice C incorrect. Encouraging the client to drink 3 liters of fluid per day may not be suitable for all patients with cirrhosis, especially those with fluid restrictions, so choice D is not the most appropriate intervention.
A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease, the nurse should maintain the client on a low-residue diet. This diet helps to minimize bowel irritation by reducing the volume and frequency of stools. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging the client to increase dietary fiber (Choice A) and eat a high-fiber diet (Choice D) can worsen symptoms and aggravate bowel inflammation in Crohn's disease. Providing the client with frequent high-calorie snacks (Choice C) may not be appropriate during an exacerbation since high-fat foods can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.
A nurse is preparing to administer dopamine hydrochloride 4 mcg/kg/min via continuous infusion. The client weighs 80 kg. How many mL/hr should the nurse set the IV infusion to deliver?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the correct rate, use the formula: (4 mcg/kg/min * 80 kg) / 800 mcg in 250 mL = 6 mL/hr. This calculation is based on the dose ordered (4 mcg/kg/min) multiplied by the patient's weight in kg (80 kg), divided by the concentration of the drug available (800 mcg in 250 mL) to be infused over 1 hour. Therefore, the correct answer is 6 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to elevate the client's affected extremity when in bed. Elevating the extremity helps to reduce swelling and improve venous return in clients with DVT. Limiting fluid intake to 1500 mL per day (Choice A) is not directly related to managing DVT. Massaging the affected extremity (Choice B) can dislodge a clot and lead to serious complications. Applying cold packs (Choice C) can vasoconstrict blood vessels, potentially worsening the condition by reducing blood flow.
Nurses caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. The client with chemotherapy and a low neutrophil count is at risk for infection and requires prompt intervention. Reporting this information to the provider is crucial to ensure appropriate monitoring and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk that requires immediate provider notification. A client reporting pain with pleurisy, a client draining fluid post-surgery, or a client with a heart rate of 98 per minute postoperative are not urgent enough to warrant immediate reporting compared to the client at risk for infection.
A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching for a client with a new prescription for furosemide is that the client should take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause gastrointestinal upset, so taking it with food can help reduce this side effect and improve medication tolerance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not increase potassium levels, decrease blood glucose levels, or require an increase in the intake of potassium-rich foods. Therefore, the most important teaching point for the client is to take furosemide with food.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse use to monitor the client's therapeutic response to the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: INR. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic response of warfarin. It helps ensure that the client's clotting time is within the desired range to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding or clotting. Choice B, aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy but rather for assessing heparin therapy. Choice C, Platelet count, assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specifically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, Hemoglobin A1C, is a test used to monitor long-term blood sugar control in diabetic patients and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy.
A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor for as a potential adverse effect of the medication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: An increased heart rate is a common adverse effect of levothyroxine due to its role in boosting metabolism. Choice B, weight loss, is actually a therapeutic effect of levothyroxine as it helps in managing hypothyroidism by increasing the metabolic rate. Hyperthermia (Choice C) is not a typical adverse effect of levothyroxine. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes (Choice D) are not associated with levothyroxine use.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.
How should signs of dehydration in an elderly patient be assessed?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Monitoring skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in elderly patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity or the skin's ability to return to its normal position after being pinched. In dehydration, the skin loses its elasticity, becoming less flexible and slower to return to its original state. Checking for dry mucous membranes (Choice B), monitoring for sunken eyes (Choice C), and checking capillary refill (Choice D) are all relevant assessments in dehydration but are not as specific or sensitive as monitoring skin turgor. Dry mucous membranes and sunken eyes are indicators of dehydration, while capillary refill is more related to circulatory status and less specific to dehydration.
A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be elevated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Ammonia. In clients with cirrhosis, impaired liver function can lead to elevated levels of ammonia in the blood. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by altered mental status. Serum albumin (Choice A) is typically decreased in cirrhosis due to the liver's reduced synthetic function. Bilirubin (Choice C) levels can be elevated in liver disease but may not always be the most specific marker for cirrhosis. Prothrombin time (Choice D) is prolonged in cirrhosis due to impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors.
A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Lean beef.' Lean beef is a good source of protein, which is essential for a balanced diet. While carrots and bananas are healthy food choices, they are not specifically recommended for clients with hypertension. Whole grains are a better alternative to refined grains for individuals with hypertension, but lean beef is a more suitable recommendation due to its protein content.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Barley soup. Barley contains gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid barley-containing foods like barley soup. Choices A, C, and D are safe options for individuals with celiac disease as they do not contain gluten. Rice, cornbread, and potatoes are gluten-free and can be included in the client's diet.
What is the priority intervention for a patient with fluid overload?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer diuretics. Diuretics help reduce excess fluid in cases of fluid overload, making it the priority intervention. Administering additional IV fluids (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by adding more fluid. Providing oral fluids (choice C) is not the priority as the excess fluid needs to be removed first. Chest physiotherapy (choice D) is not the primary intervention for fluid overload.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Apply a hydrocolloid dressing. Applying a hydrocolloid dressing helps create a moist environment that promotes healing in clients with stage 2 pressure injuries. Choice A, cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine, is not recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can be too harsh on the skin. Performing debridement as needed, as mentioned in choice C, is not typically indicated for stage 2 pressure injuries, which involve partial-thickness skin loss. Keeping the wound open to air, as stated in choice D, is also not the preferred approach for managing stage 2 pressure injuries, as maintaining a moist environment is key to promoting healing.
A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because checking blood sugar levels every morning before breakfast is a crucial aspect of managing diabetes effectively. This practice helps individuals monitor their blood sugar levels regularly and adjust their treatment plan as needed. Option A is incorrect as consuming a bedtime snack based on blood sugar levels alone may not be an appropriate approach to managing diabetes. Option B is incorrect as relying on more sugar-free candy does not address the overall dietary management of blood sugar levels. Option D is incorrect as avoiding physical activity when blood sugar is below 100 mg/dL can hinder diabetes management, as exercise is generally beneficial for controlling blood sugar levels.
A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's Wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which condition as a result of an interaction between these substances?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome can occur due to the interaction between citalopram, an SSRI, and St. John's Wort, an herbal supplement. Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include confusion, agitation, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, dilated pupils, loss of muscle coordination, and sweating. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the interaction between citalopram and St. John's Wort. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of certain antipsychotic medications, and acute dystonia is a movement disorder caused by certain medications like antipsychotics.
A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg Po to an adult client. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. An apical pulse below 60/min indicates bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the digoxin dose. Choice A, a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not indicate toxicity. Choice C, a digoxin level of 1 ng/ml, is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2 ng/ml) and is not suggestive of toxicity. Choice D, constipation for 2 days, is not directly related to digoxin administration and would not require an immediate report to the provider.
What is the first action for a healthcare provider when a patient experiences a fall?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to 'Assess the patient for injuries' when a patient experiences a fall. This is crucial to promptly identify any injuries and provide appropriate care. Calling for help may be necessary, but assessing the patient's condition takes precedence to ensure immediate attention to any injuries. Documenting the fall and notifying the healthcare provider would follow after the initial assessment and necessary actions have been taken.
How should a healthcare provider manage a patient who is experiencing acute pain?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Administering prescribed analgesics is the most effective way to manage acute pain. Analgesics help in reducing or eliminating pain quickly and efficiently. Repositioning the patient may be helpful in certain cases to relieve discomfort, but it is not the primary intervention for managing acute pain. Non-pharmacological interventions can be beneficial as adjuncts to pain management, but in cases of acute pain, administering analgesics is the priority. Administering IV fluids may be necessary for certain conditions but is not the primary intervention for managing acute pain.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the cause of late decelerations?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, which results from inadequate blood flow to the placenta. This leads to reduced oxygen and nutrients reaching the fetus during contractions. Choice A, fetal head compression, does not typically cause late decelerations but can result in variable decelerations. Choice C, umbilical cord compression, usually leads to variable decelerations. Choice D, fetal hypoxia, is a broad term and not the direct cause of late decelerations, which are specifically linked to uteroplacental insufficiency.
What is the recommended dietary restriction for a patient with chronic kidney disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to limit fluid intake for a patient with chronic kidney disease. This restriction helps manage fluid balance to prevent fluid overload. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting potassium intake is essential for some patients with kidney disease, but it is not the primary dietary restriction. Increasing protein intake is usually not recommended due to the impaired kidney function in these patients. Increasing carbohydrate intake is also not a standard recommendation for patients with chronic kidney disease.
A client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about foot care by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: "Trim your toenails straight across." This instruction is essential to prevent ingrown toenails in clients with diabetes. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice A) may increase the risk of skin breakdown and infection. Wearing shoes one size larger than normal (choice B) can lead to friction and cause blisters. While wearing cotton socks (choice C) is generally recommended, the emphasis should be on moisture-wicking materials rather than just cotton.
A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect to be elevated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Amylase. Amylase is typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas. Elevated serum creatinine levels are more indicative of kidney dysfunction rather than pancreatitis. Hemoglobin levels are not directly related to pancreatitis. While blood glucose levels can be affected by pancreatitis, they are not typically the primary laboratory result expected to be elevated in this condition.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Bradycardia. Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is a common finding in clients with hypothyroidism because of the decreased metabolic rate associated with this condition. Weight gain is also a common symptom of hypothyroidism due to the metabolic changes, making choice A incorrect. Tachycardia, or a rapid heart rate, is typically seen in hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism, so choice C is incorrect. Heat intolerance is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism rather than hypothyroidism, making choice D incorrect.
A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage kidney disease. The client's adult child asks the nurse about becoming a living kidney donor for her father. Which of the following conditions in the child's medical history should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hypertension is a contraindication for kidney donation because it can negatively impact the donor's health in the long term. Hypertension poses risks during and after the donation procedure, such as affecting kidney function and potentially leading to complications for both the donor and the recipient. Amputation, osteoarthritis, and primary glaucoma are not direct contraindications for kidney donation and would not typically prevent someone from being a living kidney donor.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Verifying the client's blood type and Rh factor is crucial before administering blood products to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because PRBCs are typically infused over a specific time frame based on hospital policy and client condition, not necessarily over 8 hours. Option C is incorrect as PRBCs are usually administered through a larger gauge catheter to prevent hemolysis. Option D is incorrect because PRBCs are typically administered with normal saline and not lactated Ringer's solution.
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has heart failure and is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Yellow-tinged vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity due to its effect on the eyes. It can cause a yellow or green visual halo around objects. Bradycardia, constipation, and hypertension are not typical signs of digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia may be a sign of digoxin's therapeutic effect in heart failure, while constipation and hypertension are not commonly associated with digoxin toxicity.
How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient who has been prescribed digoxin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct way to monitor a patient who has been prescribed digoxin is by checking digoxin levels. Digoxin is a medication used to treat various heart conditions, and monitoring its levels in the blood is crucial to prevent toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice A) is important as well, as digoxin can affect potassium levels, but checking digoxin levels is more specific to monitoring the medication itself. Monitoring heart rate (Choice B) is relevant but does not directly assess the medication levels. Checking blood glucose levels (Choice D) is not typically indicated specifically for patients prescribed digoxin.
Which lab test is used to assess renal function?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Monitor serum creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of renal function as it reflects the glomerular filtration rate. An increase in serum creatinine levels indicates impaired kidney function. Checking blood glucose levels (choice A) is not specific to assessing renal function but is used to diagnose diabetes. Monitoring BUN (choice C) is important but not as specific as serum creatinine in assessing renal function. Checking electrolyte levels (choice D) is essential in assessing kidney function but is not as specific as monitoring serum creatinine.
A client is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent respiratory complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer is crucial for preventing respiratory complications postoperatively, such as atelectasis. Instructing the client to avoid deep breathing exercises (choice A) is incorrect as deep breathing exercises help prevent respiratory complications. Assisting with ambulation every 2 hours (choice C) is important for preventing other postoperative complications but not specifically respiratory ones. Applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) (choice D) is beneficial for preventing deep vein thrombosis but not directly related to respiratory complications.
A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which resource should the healthcare provider provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Food exchange lists from the American Diabetes Association are a valuable resource for structured meal planning in individuals with diabetes. These lists categorize foods based on macronutrient content and help individuals plan balanced meals to manage blood sugar levels effectively. Personal blogs may not always provide accurate and evidence-based information. Food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine are important but may not be as specific to meal planning for diabetes. Diabetes medication information is crucial but not the primary focus when providing dietary instructions.
A client on glucocorticoid therapy is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Taking a calcium supplement daily is crucial for clients on glucocorticoid therapy to prevent osteoporosis, a common side effect of long-term use. Choice A is unrelated to glucocorticoid therapy. Choice C, limiting potassium intake, is not necessary for clients on glucocorticoids. Choice D, taking medication consistently in the evening, is important but does not specifically address the side effects of glucocorticoid therapy.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a stroke. What instruction should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Take medications at the same time every day.' Consistency in medication administration is crucial for stroke recovery to maintain therapeutic drug levels in the body. Choice A, 'Avoid lifting more than 5 pounds,' though important to prevent strain, is not directly related to medication adherence. Choice B, 'Perform range-of-motion exercises daily,' is beneficial for overall recovery but is not specific to medication management. Choice D, 'Monitor blood pressure daily,' is important but does not address the key aspect of medication regimen adherence.
Which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor INR levels for patients on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is essential because it helps assess the clotting tendency of the blood and ensures that patients are within the therapeutic range to prevent both blood clots and excessive bleeding. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B), sodium levels (Choice C), or platelet count (Choice D) is not specifically required for patients on warfarin therapy and does not directly impact the effectiveness or safety of the medication.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct statement to include when teaching a client prescribed with lisinopril is that they should avoid using salt substitutes while taking this medication. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Therefore, using salt substitutes that contain potassium can worsen this condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lisinopril is not typically associated with causing a dry cough or a slow heart rate, and increasing potassium intake can be harmful in the presence of lisinopril-induced hyperkalemia.
A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.
When caring for a client with asthma experiencing an acute exacerbation, which medication should the nurse administer first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During an acute asthma exacerbation, the priority is to quickly relieve bronchoconstriction and improve airflow. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that acts rapidly to dilate the airways, making it the first-line medication for acute symptom relief. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term asthma control, not for immediate relief. Salmeterol is a long-acting bronchodilator used for maintenance therapy, not for acute exacerbations. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid that reduces airway inflammation and is also used for long-term control, not for immediate relief during an exacerbation.
A nurse is reviewing admission prescriptions for a group of clients. Which prescription should the nurse identify as complete?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. A complete prescription should include the medication name (Furosemide), dosage (20 mg), and administration schedule (BID - twice daily). Choice B is missing the dosage of Aspirin, choice C lacks the dosage information for Nitroglycerin, and choice D does not specify the administration schedule for Metoprolol.
A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine, and a nurse is providing teaching. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Levothyroxine is a lifelong medication for clients with hypothyroidism, and it should be taken as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect because levothyroxine is usually taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect because stopping the medication abruptly can have adverse effects on thyroid function.
A client with asthma asks how to use a peak flow meter. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to perform the peak flow test before using any bronchodilators. This is important because it provides the most accurate baseline measurement of lung function. Choice A is not necessarily crucial for the accuracy of the test. Choice B describes the technique for spirometry, not peak flow meter use. Choice C, while important for tracking trends, is not directly related to the accuracy of the initial measurement.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client post-bowel resection is to instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow. This technique helps prevent dehiscence, which is the separation of wound edges, and reduces pain when coughing or moving. Splinting supports the incision site, decreasing tension on the wound. Encouraging the client to drink adequate fluids promotes hydration and aids in recovery, but a specific volume like 1,000 mL mentioned in choice A is not essential. Pain medication should be administered as needed for adequate pain control, not necessarily before every meal. Instructing the client to eat a balanced diet, including adequate protein, is crucial for wound healing and overall recovery, rather than limiting protein intake.
A nurse is preparing to measure the temperature of an infant. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct method for measuring an infant's temperature is by placing the tip of the thermometer under the center of the infant's axilla (armpit). This method is non-invasive and safe. Pulling the pinna of the ear forward is used when taking a tympanic temperature. Inserting the probe into the rectum is done for rectal temperature measurement, which is not recommended as an initial method in infants. Inserting the thermometer in front of the infant's tongue is not a standard method for measuring temperature in infants.
A nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Critical pathways are structured, multi-disciplinary plans of care designed to decrease health care costs and improve outcomes by standardizing and streamlining processes. Choice A is incorrect because critical pathways have specific timeframes for completion. Choice C is incorrect as patients are expected to follow the critical pathway without deviations to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because budgets do not create critical pathways; rather, they are based on clinical guidelines and best practices.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, baked fish and steamed vegetables. These food choices are low in potassium and phosphorus, which is important for clients with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively. Grilled chicken and rice (choice B) may be high in phosphorus, tomato soup with saltine crackers (choice C) is high in sodium, and a peanut butter and jelly sandwich (choice A) contains high levels of potassium, all of which are not ideal choices for individuals with chronic kidney disease.
Which lab value is critical to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy. INR measures the blood's ability to clot and is used to ensure that patients are within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy. This is important to prevent both clotting disorders and bleeding complications. Monitoring potassium levels (choice B) is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Platelet count (choice C) and sodium levels (choice D) are important parameters but are not as critical to monitor specifically for patients on warfarin therapy.
A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube is to flush the tube with 10 mL of water after feeding. This helps maintain tube patency and prevent clogging. Choice A, checking for residual feeding contents, is not the immediate action to take before administering the feeding. Choice B, administering the feeding through a large-bore syringe, is not the recommended method for administering enteral feedings. Choice D, administering the feeding at room temperature, is important but not the immediate action related to tube maintenance.
A nurse is assisting with the development of an informed document for participation in a research study. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'A statement that participants can leave the study at will.' This information is crucial to include in the informed document to ensure that participants are aware of their right to withdraw from the study at any time without any negative consequences. Choice B is incorrect because participants should not be assigned to experimental or control groups without their knowledge and consent. Choice C is incorrect because disclosing a list of clients participating in the study violates confidentiality. Choice D is incorrect as the description of the data evaluation framework is important but not as critical as ensuring participants know they can leave the study at will.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has been receiving lithium carbonate for the past 12 months. The nurse notes a lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. Which of the following orders from the provider should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering the medication is appropriate for a stable lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. A level of 0.8 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range for lithium, indicating that the client is receiving an adequate dose to maintain therapeutic effects. Withholding the next dose, increasing the dosage, or discontinuing the medication would not be indicated at this lithium level as it is within the desired range for therapeutic benefit. Therefore, the correct action would be to continue administering the medication to ensure the client maintains the therapeutic level of lithium.
A client has a new diagnosis of hypertension and is being taught about lifestyle changes by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: "Exercise for 30 minutes at least 5 days a week." Regular exercise helps promote cardiovascular health and manage hypertension. Choice A is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended for hypertension. Choice C is incorrect because while sleep is important, excessive sleep duration is not typically part of hypertension management. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be adequate unless advised otherwise by a healthcare provider.
What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Oxygen therapy is a critical and priority intervention in such cases as it aims to increase oxygen levels in the blood. Administering bronchodilators may be beneficial for specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD, but oxygen should be the initial priority. Administering IV fluids and providing humidified air, while important in certain situations, are not the primary interventions for respiratory distress.
A client is 2 hr postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to prevent hip dislocation. Placing an abduction pillow between the client's legs helps maintain proper alignment of the hip joint and prevents adduction, which could lead to dislocation. Therefore, choice B is the correct action. Choice A is incorrect because positioning the client supine with a pillow between the legs does not provide the necessary abduction to prevent dislocation. Choice C, placing a pillow under the client's knees, does not address the need for abduction. Choice D, positioning the client's legs in adduction, is incorrect as adduction increases the risk of hip dislocation following hip arthroplasty.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has liver cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with liver cirrhosis, an elevated prothrombin time indicates impaired liver function and decreased production of clotting factors. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate worsening liver cirrhosis. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL is normal, ammonia 35 mcg/dL is within the reference range, and albumin 4 g/dL is also within the normal range for this client population.
A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about managing fluid intake. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: "You should restrict your fluid intake to 1 liter per day." Clients with heart failure should limit their fluid intake to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen their condition. Choice A is incorrect because 2 liters of water per day may be excessive for someone with heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as unlimited fluid intake is not suitable for individuals with heart failure. Choice D is also incorrect as 3 liters per day may be too much fluid for a client with heart failure.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A weight gain of 0.9 kg (2 lb) in 1 week is an indication of fluid retention, which is concerning in a client with preeclampsia. This can be a sign of worsening condition requiring immediate medical attention. High blood pressure (option A) is expected in preeclampsia, a urine output of 30 mL/hr (option C) is decreased but not as urgent as the weight gain in this scenario, and a respiratory rate of 16/min (option D) is within normal limits.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 88/min is a normal finding; therefore, it does not require immediate reporting to the provider. The respiratory rate of 20/min, blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation of 94% are also within normal ranges and do not indicate any immediate concerns. However, a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can be a serious issue and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management.
A client has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate with orange juice to increase absorption because the vitamin C content in orange juice enhances iron absorption. Choice A is incorrect because ferrous sulfate should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice B is incorrect because milk can decrease iron absorption. Choice D is incorrect because antacids can reduce the absorption of ferrous sulfate.
A client with hypertension is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse on managing blood pressure at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Use a blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the arm.' Using a properly fitting cuff is essential for accurate blood pressure measurements. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of medication administration should be individualized and not specified in the question. Choice B is incorrect as checking blood pressure once a week may not provide sufficient monitoring for a client with hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly once blood pressure is normal can lead to rebound hypertension and complications.
A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of warfarin. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Clients on warfarin therapy need to have their International Normalized Ratio (INR) checked regularly to monitor the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like clotting or bleeding. Option A is incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables can affect INR levels due to their vitamin K content. Option B is incorrect as grapefruit juice is not a significant concern with warfarin. Option D is important for medication adherence but does not specifically address the monitoring aspect required for warfarin therapy.
A parent is being taught by a nurse how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of how to place the infant in the crib at bedtime?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Place the infant on their back to sleep.' This statement indicates an understanding of the recommended sleep position to reduce the risk of SIDS. Placing infants on their back is the safest sleep position according to guidelines to prevent SIDS. Choices A and B are incorrect as placing the infant on their stomach or side increases the risk of SIDS. While allowing the infant to sleep with a pacifier can also reduce the risk of SIDS, the most crucial step is placing the infant on their back for sleep.
A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of metformin. Which of the following client statements demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because clients taking metformin should avoid alcohol as it increases the risk of lactic acidosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not specific to metformin but rather a general recommendation for some medications. Choice B is a good practice for medication adherence but does not relate specifically to metformin. Choice D is inaccurate as weight gain is not an expected side effect of metformin.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber can indicate an air leak, which compromises the integrity of the chest tube system and should be reported to the provider for immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is an expected finding indicating that the system is working appropriately. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation of fluid level with inspiration and expiration, indicating that the system is functioning correctly. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours is within the expected range for chest tube drainage and does not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral edema. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing fluid overload in clients with heart failure by increasing urine output. A decrease in peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively removing excess fluid from the body. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate an improvement in the client's condition. Increased shortness of breath, increased jugular venous distention, and increased heart rate are all signs of worsening heart failure and would not be expected findings when furosemide is effective.
In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.
A client has a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system. Which of the following actions should be taken?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system is to add sterile water to the water-seal chamber. This is necessary to maintain the correct water level for proper chest tube function. Clamping the chest tube during ambulation (Choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to complications by obstructing drainage. Keeping the collection chamber below the level of the chest (Choice B) is incorrect because it should be kept below the chest to facilitate drainage. Emptying the collection chamber every 12 hours (Choice D) is incorrect as it should be emptied whenever it reaches the fill line or as per facility policy, not on a fixed time schedule.
What is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation in patients with suspected DVT. Encouraging ambulation can be beneficial in preventing DVT but is not the immediate intervention for a suspected case. Compression stockings are more for DVT prevention rather than treatment. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important in assessing respiratory function but is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.
What is the appropriate action for a healthcare provider to take when a patient has a high fever and is disoriented?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering fluids is the appropriate action for a healthcare provider to take when a patient has a high fever and is disoriented. Dehydration can worsen confusion and other symptoms in such a situation. Administering acetaminophen or cooling the patient with cold compresses may help reduce the fever but does not address the underlying issue. Administering antibiotics is not indicated for a high fever and disorientation without knowing the cause.
What is the most important assessment for a patient post-op to monitor for complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor vital signs. Post-operative patients need close monitoring of their vital signs to detect early signs of complications such as changes in blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, and respiratory rate. While monitoring the surgical site is also important for signs of infection, assessing vital signs takes precedence as it provides immediate information about the patient's overall condition. Checking blood glucose levels may be essential for specific patients but is not the primary assessment for monitoring post-op complications. Checking for abnormal breath sounds is important but falls secondary to monitoring vital signs as it indicates respiratory issues rather than providing a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition.
A client who wears glasses is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to store the glasses in a labeled case. This ensures the safety of the glasses and helps in their proper identification when needed. Cleaning the glasses with hot water (Choice B) can damage them, and using a paper towel (Choice C) can scratch the lenses. Storing the glasses on the bedside table (Choice D) can lead to misplacement or damage. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to store the glasses in a labeled case.
A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing the laboratory test results of a school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A WBC count of 14,000/mm³ is elevated, indicating a potential infection or inflammation, and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting as they indicate normal hemoglobin, platelet count, and hematocrit levels for a school-age child.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which can affect the metabolism and excretion of enoxaparin, potentially leading to increased drug levels and risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is crucial to report a high serum creatinine level before administering enoxaparin. Platelet count, aPTT, and sodium levels are not directly related to the administration of enoxaparin and would not impact its use; hence, they do not need to be reported before starting the medication.
A nurse in a pediatric clinic is reviewing the laboratory test results of a school-age child. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A WBC count of 14,000/mm³ is elevated, indicating a potential infection or inflammation, and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting as they indicate normal hemoglobin, platelet count, and hematocrit levels for a school-age child.
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An elevated serum creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which can affect the metabolism and excretion of enoxaparin, potentially leading to increased drug levels and risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is crucial to report a high serum creatinine level before administering enoxaparin. Platelet count, aPTT, and sodium levels are not directly related to the administration of enoxaparin and would not impact its use; hence, they do not need to be reported before starting the medication.
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