ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client with a prescription for digoxin. Which result requires withholding the medication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L) can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate a need to withhold digoxin.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions as a result of an interaction between these substances?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin syndrome. When a client takes St. John's wort, a herbal supplement, along with citalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), there is a risk of developing serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by symptoms such as confusion, agitation, fever, sweating, shivering, tremors, muscle rigidity, and in severe cases, seizures and coma. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tardive dyskinesia is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, pseudo-parkinsonism is a side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, and acute dystonia is a side effect of antipsychotic medications characterized by sustained muscle contractions.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to take the medication with meals. This helps prevent gastrointestinal upset and improves medication tolerance. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as furosemide typically lowers blood pressure. Option C is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss rather than retention.

4. A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (AP) discussing care for a client in the elevator. What action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report the incident to the AP's charge nurse. This ensures that the issue is addressed internally and allows for proper handling of the situation. Contacting the client's family about the incident (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it could breach confidentiality and escalate the situation unnecessarily. Notifying the client's provider (Choice B) is not the most immediate and effective step to address the issue. Filing a complaint with the ethics committee (Choice C) should be reserved for serious ethical violations, and in this case, reporting to the charge nurse is the more practical and immediate course of action.

5. A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is the best predictor of future violence as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future. While experiencing delusions and being male may contribute to an increased risk of violence in certain situations, they are not as strong predictors as a history of violence. Similarly, having a history of being in prison may indicate a higher likelihood of violence, but it is not as directly linked to future violent behavior as previous violent actions.

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