ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) for the development of an acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as indicating an increased risk of AKI?
- A. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL
- C. Serum Osmolality 290 mOsm/kg H2O
- D. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level (1.8 mg/dL) is a significant indicator of potential kidney impairment. In acute kidney injury (AKI), serum creatinine levels rise due to decreased kidney function, reflecting the kidneys' inability to effectively filter waste from the blood. Magnesium level, BUN, and serum osmolality are not direct indicators of kidney function or risk of AKI. Magnesium levels are more related to electrolyte balance, BUN can be affected by factors other than kidney function, and serum osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood, not specifically kidney function.
2. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI)?
- A. Preparing the patient for dialysis if necessary
- B. Providing dietary modifications to reduce potassium
- C. Monitoring urine output and electrolytes
- D. Administering fluids and monitoring blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) includes preparing the patient for dialysis if necessary. While choices B, C, and D are also important aspects of managing AKI, the critical intervention in severe cases is to prepare the patient for dialysis to support kidney function. Providing dietary modifications to reduce potassium, monitoring urine output and electrolytes, and administering fluids are essential components of the overall care plan for AKI patients, but in cases where the condition is severe or if conservative management fails, dialysis may be required to support the patient's kidney function and prevent further complications.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer aspirin 650mg PO every 12 hr. The amount available is aspirin 325mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 2 tablets. Each tablet of aspirin is 325mg. To achieve the required dose of 650mg, the nurse should administer 2 tablets. Choice A (1 tablet) is incorrect because it would only provide 325mg, which is half the required dose. Choices C (3 tablets) and D (4 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the required dose.
4. A nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Pain
- C. Nausea
- D. Gag reflex
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the gag reflex. This is the priority assessment following an EGD procedure to prevent aspiration. Checking the gag reflex helps ensure the client's airway protection. Assessing the level of consciousness is important, but ensuring the client can protect their airway takes precedence. Pain and nausea assessments are also essential but are secondary to maintaining airway patency.
5. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Cough
- B. Tremor
- C. Constipation
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct. Bradycardia is a known adverse effect of atenolol, a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. Atenolol can slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia, such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cough, tremor, and constipation are not typically associated with atenolol use.
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