rn ati capstone proctored comprehensive assessment form a RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A - Nursing Elites
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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse manager is teaching a group of employees about standards for Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN). Which of the following statements by an employee should the nurse manager identify as an example of the QSEN concept of quality improvement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Involving partners in care planning is a quality improvement strategy that aligns with QSEN principles. This choice reflects patient-centered care and collaboration, which are essential elements of quality improvement. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to quality improvement concepts. Tracking discharge times, logging out of computers, and providing change-of-shift reports are important practices but not specifically focused on quality improvement.

2. Which of the following is an example of professional negligence?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Professional negligence involves failing to meet the standard of care expected in a particular profession, which can lead to harm. In this case, not following facility guidelines can result in lapses in safety or quality of care, potentially causing harm to clients. Choices B, C, and D all represent essential aspects of professional conduct and do not directly relate to negligence.

3. A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. Which of the following interventions by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because teaching students about healthy food choices is a primary prevention strategy that aims to prevent future health issues by promoting healthy behaviors. Choice A, designing interventions for an individual education plan (IEP), is more related to addressing specific educational needs rather than preventing health issues. Choice C, performing first aid for minor injuries, is a form of secondary prevention aimed at reducing the impact of existing health problems. Choice D, performing scoliosis screenings for students, falls under secondary prevention by detecting health issues early rather than preventing them.

4. A nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the gag reflex. This is the priority assessment following an EGD procedure to prevent aspiration. Checking the gag reflex helps ensure the client's airway protection. Assessing the level of consciousness is important, but ensuring the client can protect their airway takes precedence. Pain and nausea assessments are also essential but are secondary to maintaining airway patency.

5. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient who is exhibiting signs of acute myocardial infarction (AMI)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is exhibiting signs of acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the priority action is to call for emergency assistance immediately. This ensures that the patient receives prompt and appropriate care, including interventions such as administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, and monitoring cardiac rhythm. Administering nitroglycerin should only be done if prescribed by a healthcare provider after assessment and confirmation of AMI. Monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm is important but not the initial action needed in this critical situation. Administering oxygen and preparing for an ECG are important interventions but should follow the immediate step of calling for emergency assistance.

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