Free Gastrointestinal Systems practice for Gastrointestinal System Nursing Exam Questions (ATI RN). Answer 81 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam
Which of the following substances is most likely to cause gastritis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs are known to cause gastritis by irritating the stomach lining. Choice A, Milk, is unlikely to cause gastritis and is actually a common remedy for mild gastritis symptoms. Choice B, Bicarbonate of soda or baking soda, is often used to relieve heartburn and indigestion, not cause gastritis. Choice C, Enteric-coated aspirin, is less likely to cause gastritis compared to NSAIDs because the enteric coating helps protect the stomach lining from irritation.
Dark, tarry stools indicate bleeding in which location of the GI tract?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Dark, tarry stools indicate bleeding in the upper GI tract.
The most important pathophysiologic factor contributing to the formation of esophageal varices is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Portal hypertension is the most important pathophysiologic factor contributing to the formation of esophageal varices.
The client has had a new colostomy created 2 days earlier. The client is beginning to pass malodorous flatus from the stoma. The nurse interprets that
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
As peristalsis returns following creation of a colostomy, the client begins to pass malodorous flatus. This indicates returning bowel function and is an expected event. Within 72 hours of surgery, the client should begin passing stool via the colostomy.
A client who has had gastrectomy is not producing sufficient intrinsic factor. The nurse interprets that the client has lost the ability to absorb cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) in the
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Intrinsic factor is produced in the stomach but is used to aid in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine. Vitamin B12 is not absorbed in the large intestine (options 3 and 4).
A nurse is giving dietary instructions to a client who has a new colostomy. The nurse encourages the client to eat foods representing which of the following diets for the first 4 to 6 weeks postoperatively?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For the first 4 to 6 weeks following colostomy formation, the client should take in a low-residue diet. Following this period, the client should eat a high-carbohydrate, high-protein diet. The nurse also instructs the client to add new foods, one at a time, to determine tolerance to that food.
To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instructions?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To prevent reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, the nurse should advise the client to avoid foods and beverages that tend to increase stomach acid, such as coffee and alcohol. The nurse also should teach the client to avoid lying down after meals, which can aggravate reflux, and to take antacids after eating. The client doesn't need to limit fluids with meals as long as the fluids aren't gastric irritants.
Stephen is a 62 y.o. patient that has had a liver biopsy. Which of the following groups of signs alert you to a possible pneumothorax?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Dyspnea and reduced or absent breath sounds over the right lung are signs of a possible pneumothorax.
A nurse is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies drawn on a client who is suspected of having hepatitis. The nurse interprets that an elevation in which of the following studies is the most specific indicator of the disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Laboratory indicators of hepatitis include elevated liver enzymes, serum bilirubin level, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is nonspecific test that indicates the presence of inflammation somewhere in the body. Elevated blood urea nitrogen may indicate renal dysfunction. A hemoglobin level is unrelated to this diagnosis.
Type A chronic gastritis can be distinguished from type B by its ability to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Type A chronic gastritis can cause atrophy of the parietal cells, which is a distinguishing feature from type B.
A client with which of the following conditions may be likely to develop rectal cancer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Adenomatous polyps are a known risk factor for the development of rectal cancer.
Which of the following would be an expected nutritional outcome for a client who has undergone a subtotal gastrectomy for cancer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Achieving optimal nutritional status through oral or parenteral feedings is an expected nutritional outcome for a client who has undergone a subtotal gastrectomy for cancer.
Which of the following treatments is used for rectal cancer but not for colon cancer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Radiation therapy is commonly used for rectal cancer to shrink the tumor before surgery, which is not typically done for colon cancer.
Radiation therapy is used to treat colon cancer before surgery for which of the following reasons?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Radiation therapy is used before surgery to reduce the size of the tumor, making it easier to remove.
When teaching an elderly client how to prevent constipation, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To prevent constipation, elderly clients should be encouraged to get regular exercise, which promotes bowel motility.
Which of the following types of diets is implicated in the development of diverticulosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low-fiber diet is implicated in the development of diverticulosis because it leads to harder stools and increased pressure in the colon. The lack of fiber results in decreased bulk and slower transit time, predisposing individuals to constipation and the formation of diverticula. High-fiber diets, on the other hand, promote regular bowel movements and help prevent diverticular disease. High-protein and low-carbohydrate diets do not have a direct association with diverticulosis.
Regina is a 46 y.o. woman with ulcerative colitis. You expect her stools to look like:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Stools in ulcerative colitis are typically bloody and mucoid.
The client with cirrhosis has ascites and excess fluid volume. Which measure will the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Excess fluid volume, related to the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal and dependent areas of the body, can occur in the client with cirrhosis. Fluids should be restricted, including fluids given in medications and meals. Sodium restriction also aids in reducing fluid volume excess.
The client who has undergone creation of a colostomy has a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed body image. The nurse would evaluate that the client is making the most significant progress toward identified goals if the client:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Practices cutting the ostomy appliance. This choice indicates that the client is actively involved in self-care and adapting to the colostomy. By practicing cutting the ostomy appliance, the client is demonstrating independence and self-management skills, showing significant progress towards overcoming the disturbed body image. Choices A, B, and C do not involve active participation in self-care tasks related to the colostomy, which are essential for the client's adaptation and acceptance.
Which of the following factors should be the main focus of nursing management for a client hospitalized for cholecystitis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Assessment for complications should be the main focus of nursing management for a client hospitalized for cholecystitis.
A client is to take one daily dose of ranitidine (Zantac) at home to treat her peptic ulcer. The nurse knows that the client understands proper drug administration of ranitidine when she says that she will take the drug at which of the following times?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Ranitidine (Zantac) is best taken at bedtime to reduce stomach acid production overnight.
If a gastric acid perforates, which of the following actions should not be included in the immediate management of the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Antacid administration should not be included in the immediate management of a gastric perforation.
When a client has peptic ulcer disease, the nurse would expect a priority intervention to be:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Inserting a nasogastric tube is a priority intervention for a client with peptic ulcer disease to decompress the stomach.
Your patient has a retractable gastric peptic ulcer and has had a gastric vagotomy. Which factor increases as a result of vagotomy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
After a gastric vagotomy, the gastric pH increases as a result of reduced acid secretion.
The client being treated for esophageal varices has a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube inserted to control the bleeding. The most important assessment is for the nurse to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Regularly assessing respiratory status is crucial when a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is inserted to control bleeding in esophageal varices.
Which of the following symptoms is a client with colon cancer most likely to exhibit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A change in bowel habits is the most common symptom of colon cancer.
A client has a nasogastric tube inserted at the time of abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. This tube will most likely be removed when the client demonstrates:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A sign indicating that a client's colostomy is open and ready to function is passage of feces and flatus. When this occurs, gastric suction is ordinarily discontinued, and the client is allowed to start taking fluids and food orally. Absence of bowel sounds would indicate that the tube should remain in place because peristalsis has not yet returned. Absence of nausea and vomiting is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued. Passage of mucus from the rectum will not occur in this client because the rectum is removed in this surgery. Absence of stomach drainage is not a criterion for judging whether or not gastric suction should be continued.
The nurse has provided home care instructions to a client who had a subtotal gastrectomy. The nurse instructs the client regarding the signs and symptoms associated with dumping syndrome. Which of the following signs and symptoms, if identified by the client, indicates an understanding of this potential complication following gastrointestinal surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Diaphoresis and diarrhea. Dumping syndrome occurs after gastric surgery when food moves quickly from the stomach to the intestine, causing fluid shifts and leading to symptoms like weakness, dizziness, diaphoresis, flushing, hypotension, abdominal pain, distension, hyperactive bowel sounds, and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C do not reflect the typical signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome.
A nurse is providing instructions to a client who will collect a stool specimen for occult blood. The nurse instructs the client to avoid which of the following for 3 days before the collection of the stool specimen?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Turnips. The nurse would instruct the client to avoid red meat, poultry, fish, turnips, horseradish, and foods such as fruits and vegetables for 3 days before and during testing. These products may alter test results. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not specifically mentioned as items to avoid before collecting a stool specimen for occult blood.
A client with ulcerative colitis is diagnosed with a mild case of the disease. The nurse doing dietary teaching gives the client examples of foods to eat that represent which of the following therapeutic diets?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client with a mild case of ulcerative colitis is often advised to follow a diet low in roughage and avoid milk. This dietary approach helps reduce the frequency of diarrhea in these clients. Therefore, the correct therapeutic diet for the client with ulcerative colitis in this scenario is a low-roughage diet without milk. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because high-fat, high-protein, and low-roughage with milk diets are not typically recommended for clients with ulcerative colitis, especially those with mild cases.
Jason, a 22 y.o. accident victim, requires an NG tube for feeding. What should you immediately do after inserting an NG tube for liquid enteral feedings?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Immediately after inserting an NG tube for enteral feedings, aspirate for gastric secretions to confirm proper placement.
A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the operating room following the creation of a colostomy. The nurse is assessing the drainage in the pouch attached to the site where the colostomy was formed and notes serosanguineous drainage. Which nursing action is most appropriate based on this assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the first 24 to 72 hours following surgery, mucus and serosanguineous drainage are expected from the stoma. Documenting the amount and characteristics of the drainage is appropriate. The nurse does not need to notify the physician because this is an expected finding. Applying ice or pressure to the site is not necessary.
A client with peptic ulcer is scheduled for a Vagotomy. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this procedure. The nurse tells the client that the procedure
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A vagotomy, or cutting of the vagus nerve, is done to eliminate parasympathetic stimulation of gastric secretion, thereby reducing the stimulus to acid secretions. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as a vagotomy does not affect food absorption, heal the gastric mucosa, or halt stress reactions.
Which of the following mechanisms can facilitate the development of diverticulosis into diverticulitis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Undigested food blocking the diverticulum can lead to bacterial invasion, causing inflammation and turning diverticulosis into diverticulitis. Choices A, B, and C do not directly facilitate the development of diverticulitis. Choice A involves a different mechanism related to laxative use, choice B describes a complication of chronic constipation but does not necessarily lead to diverticulitis, and choice C refers to a different condition involving herniation of the intestinal mucosa.
What information is correct about stomach cancer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Stomach pain is often a late symptom of stomach cancer.
A patient has a severe exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Long-term medications will probably include:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Long-term medications for a severe exacerbation of ulcerative colitis probably include corticosteroids.
Which of the following therapies is not included in the medical management of a client with peritonitis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A regular diet is not included in the medical management of peritonitis, which requires bowel rest and IV fluids.
The client with chronic pancreatitis needs information on dietary modification to manage the health problem. The nurse teaches the client to limit which of the following items in the diet?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The client should limit fat in the diet. The client also should take in small meals, which also will reduce the amount of carbohydrates and protein that the client must digest at any one time. The client does not need to limit water-soluble vitamins in the diet.
When teaching a community group about measures to prevent colon cancer, which instruction should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Limiting fat intake is a recommended measure to reduce the risk of colon cancer. Including fiber, undergoing annual rectal examinations, and sigmoidoscopy are also important, but limiting fat intake is directly related to reducing cancer risk.
The client with a duodenal ulcer may exhibit which of the following findings on assessment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Melena (black, tarry stools) can be an indication of a duodenal ulcer.
Your patient, Christopher, has a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis and has severe abdominal pain aggravated by movement, rebound tenderness, fever, nausea, and decreased urine output. This may indicate which complication?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Severe abdominal pain aggravated by movement, rebound tenderness, fever, nausea, and decreased urine output in a patient with ulcerative colitis may indicate bowel perforation.
A client with rectal cancer may exhibit which of the following symptoms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Rectal bleeding is a common symptom in clients with rectal cancer.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the client to report when responding to questions about his bowel elimination pattern?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Diarrhea is the primary symptom of ulcerative colitis. It is profuse and severe; the client may pass as many as 15 to 20 watery stools per day. Stools may contain blood, mucus, and pus. The frequent diarrhea is often accompanied by anorexia and nausea. Constipation is not a sign or symptom of ulcerative colitis. Steatorrhea (fatty stools) is more typical of pancreatitis and cholecystitis. Alternating diarrhea and constipation is associated with irritable bowel syndrome.
A 30-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with complaints of severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of the patient's intravenous therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests BEST reflects hydration status?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hematocrit is the best indicator of hydration status because it reflects the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. An increased hematocrit indicates dehydration, as the blood becomes more concentrated due to fluid loss. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (Choice A) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation, not hydration status. White blood cell count (Choice B) is an indicator of infection or inflammation. Serum glucose (Choice D) is used to monitor blood sugar levels, not hydration status.
A patient with Crohn's disease is admitted after 4 days of diarrhea. Which of the following urine specific gravity values do you expect to find in this patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A urine specific gravity of 1.030 indicates concentrated urine, which is expected in a patient with dehydration due to diarrhea from Crohn's disease.
Which of the following associated disorders may the client with Crohn's disease exhibit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with Crohn's disease may exhibit associated disorders such as ankylosing spondylitis, which is an inflammatory condition affecting the spine.
A client with viral hepatitis is discussing with the nurse the need to avoid alcohol and states, 'I'm not sure I can avoid alcohol.' The most appropriate response is
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate response in this situation is to seek clarification from the client by saying, 'I'm not sure that I don't understand. Would you please explain?' This response shows empathy and a willingness to listen, encouraging the client to elaborate on their concerns. False reassurance (Choice A) is not helpful as it dismisses the client's feelings. Suggesting to talk more with the doctor (Choice B) may deflect from addressing the client's immediate concerns. Expressing disbelief (Choice C) can create a barrier to open communication, making the client feel unsupported.
Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Coffee-ground emesis indicates that the gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
A client is taking an antacid for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which of the following statements best indicates that the client understands how to correctly take the antacid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is best for the client to take the antacid 1 to 3 hours after meals to ensure effectiveness.
The nurse has inserted a nasogastric tube to the level of the oropharynx and has repositioned the client's head in a flexed-forward position. The client has been asked to begin swallowing. The nurse starts slowly to advance the nasogastric tube with each swallow. The client begins to cough, gag, and choke. Which nursing action would least likely result in proper tube insertion and promote client relaxation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
As the nasogastric tube is passed through the oropharynx, the gag reflex is stimulated, which may cause coughing, gagging, or choking. Instead of passing through to the esophagus, the nasogastric tube may coil around itself in the oropharynx, or it may enter the larynx and obstruct the airway, pulling the tube back slightly will remove it from the larynx; advancing the tube might position it in the trachea. Swallowing closes the epiglottis over the trachea and helps move the tube into the esophagus. Slow breathing helps the client relax to reduce the gag response. The nurse should check the back of the client's throat to note if the tube has coiled. The tube may be advanced after the client relaxes.
Your goal is to minimize David's risk of complications after a heriorrhaphy. You instruct the patient to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Instruct the patient to splint the incision if he can't avoid sneezing or coughing to minimize the risk of complications after heriorrhaphy.
Anna is 45 y.o. and has a bleeding ulcer. Despite multiple blood transfusions, her HGB is 7.5g/dl and HCT is 27%. Her doctor determines that surgical intervention is necessary and she undergoes partial gastrectomy. Postoperative nursing care includes:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Postoperative care for a patient who underwent partial gastrectomy includes keeping her NPO until the return of peristalsis to prevent complications.
You have to teach ostomy self care to a patient with a colostomy. You tell the patient to measure and cut the wafer:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The wafer should be measured and cut about 1/8" larger than the stoma to ensure proper fit and prevent skin irritation.
You're assessing the stoma of a patient with a healthy, well-healed colostomy. You expect the stoma to appear:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A healthy, well-healed colostomy stoma should appear red and moist.
The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with acute gastritis. Which medication, if noted on the client's record, would the nurse question?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Indomethacin (Indocin) is an NSAID that can aggravate acute gastritis and should be questioned.
You're caring for a patient with a sigmoid colostomy. The stool from this colostomy is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The stool from a sigmoid colostomy is typically formed.
Which of the following symptoms may be exhibited by a client with Crohn's disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with Crohn's disease may exhibit symptoms such as steatorrhea, which is the presence of excess fat in the stool.
You're preparing a patient with a malignant tumor for colorectal surgery and subsequent colostomy. The patient tells you he's anxious. What should your initial step be in working with this patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient with a malignant tumor is anxious about colorectal surgery and a colostomy, the initial step is to determine what the patient already knows about colostomies.
Arthur has a family history of colon cancer and is scheduled to have a sigmoidoscopy. He is crying as he tells you, "I know that I have colon cancer, too." Which response is most therapeutic?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acknowledging the patient's emotions with 'You seem upset' is the most therapeutic response.
Which of the following interventions should be included in the medical management of Crohn's disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Long-term steroid therapy is often used in the management of Crohn's disease to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune response.
You're caring for Jane, a 57 y.o. patient with liver cirrhosis who develops ascites and requires paracentesis. Before her paracentesis, you instruct her to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before paracentesis, instruct the patient to empty her bladder to avoid bladder injury during the procedure.
Findings during an endoscopic exam include a cobblestone appearance of the colon in your patient. The findings are characteristic of which disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The cobblestone appearance of the colon is characteristic of Crohn's disease.
You're caring for Beth who underwent a Billroth II procedure (surgical removal of the pylorus and duodenum) for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which findings suggest that the patient is developing dumping syndrome, a complication associated with this procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Dizziness and sweating are common signs of dumping syndrome, a complication of the Billroth II procedure.
A patient with Crohn's disease is admitted after 4 days of diarrhea. Which of the following urine specific gravity values do you expect to find in this patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A urine specific gravity of 1.030 indicates concentrated urine, which is expected in a patient with dehydration due to diarrhea from Crohn's disease.
Which of the following associated disorders may the client with Crohn's disease exhibit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with Crohn's disease may exhibit associated disorders such as ankylosing spondylitis, which is an inflammatory condition affecting the spine.
A client with viral hepatitis is discussing with the nurse the need to avoid alcohol and states, 'I'm not sure I can avoid alcohol.' The most appropriate response is
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate response in this situation is to seek clarification from the client by saying, 'I'm not sure that I don't understand. Would you please explain?' This response shows empathy and a willingness to listen, encouraging the client to elaborate on their concerns. False reassurance (Choice A) is not helpful as it dismisses the client's feelings. Suggesting to talk more with the doctor (Choice B) may deflect from addressing the client's immediate concerns. Expressing disbelief (Choice C) can create a barrier to open communication, making the client feel unsupported.
Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Coffee-ground emesis indicates that the gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
A client is taking an antacid for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which of the following statements best indicates that the client understands how to correctly take the antacid?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
It is best for the client to take the antacid 1 to 3 hours after meals to ensure effectiveness.
The nurse has inserted a nasogastric tube to the level of the oropharynx and has repositioned the client's head in a flexed-forward position. The client has been asked to begin swallowing. The nurse starts slowly to advance the nasogastric tube with each swallow. The client begins to cough, gag, and choke. Which nursing action would least likely result in proper tube insertion and promote client relaxation?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
As the nasogastric tube is passed through the oropharynx, the gag reflex is stimulated, which may cause coughing, gagging, or choking. Instead of passing through to the esophagus, the nasogastric tube may coil around itself in the oropharynx, or it may enter the larynx and obstruct the airway, pulling the tube back slightly will remove it from the larynx; advancing the tube might position it in the trachea. Swallowing closes the epiglottis over the trachea and helps move the tube into the esophagus. Slow breathing helps the client relax to reduce the gag response. The nurse should check the back of the client's throat to note if the tube has coiled. The tube may be advanced after the client relaxes.
Your goal is to minimize David's risk of complications after a heriorrhaphy. You instruct the patient to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Instruct the patient to splint the incision if he can't avoid sneezing or coughing to minimize the risk of complications after heriorrhaphy.
Anna is 45 y.o. and has a bleeding ulcer. Despite multiple blood transfusions, her HGB is 7.5g/dl and HCT is 27%. Her doctor determines that surgical intervention is necessary and she undergoes partial gastrectomy. Postoperative nursing care includes:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Postoperative care for a patient who underwent partial gastrectomy includes keeping her NPO until the return of peristalsis to prevent complications.
You're assessing the stoma of a patient with a healthy, well-healed colostomy. You expect the stoma to appear:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A healthy, well-healed colostomy stoma should appear red and moist.
The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with acute gastritis. Which medication, if noted on the client's record, would the nurse question?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Indomethacin (Indocin) is an NSAID that can aggravate acute gastritis and should be questioned.
You're caring for a patient with a sigmoid colostomy. The stool from this colostomy is:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The stool from a sigmoid colostomy is typically formed.
Which of the following symptoms may be exhibited by a client with Crohn's disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients with Crohn's disease may exhibit symptoms such as steatorrhea, which is the presence of excess fat in the stool.
You're preparing a patient with a malignant tumor for colorectal surgery and subsequent colostomy. The patient tells you he's anxious. What should your initial step be in working with this patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a patient with a malignant tumor is anxious about colorectal surgery and a colostomy, the initial step is to determine what the patient already knows about colostomies.
Arthur has a family history of colon cancer and is scheduled to have a sigmoidoscopy. He is crying as he tells you, "I know that I have colon cancer, too." Which response is most therapeutic?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Acknowledging the patient's emotions with 'You seem upset' is the most therapeutic response.
Which of the following interventions should be included in the medical management of Crohn's disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Long-term steroid therapy is often used in the management of Crohn's disease to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune response.
You're caring for Jane, a 57 y.o. patient with liver cirrhosis who develops ascites and requires paracentesis. Before her paracentesis, you instruct her to:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Before paracentesis, instruct the patient to empty her bladder to avoid bladder injury during the procedure.
Findings during an endoscopic exam include a cobblestone appearance of the colon in your patient. The findings are characteristic of which disorder?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The cobblestone appearance of the colon is characteristic of Crohn's disease.
You're caring for Beth who underwent a Billroth II procedure (surgical removal of the pylorus and duodenum) for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which findings suggest that the patient is developing dumping syndrome, a complication associated with this procedure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Dizziness and sweating are common signs of dumping syndrome, a complication of the Billroth II procedure.
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