Free ATI RN Exit practice for ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam (ATI RN). Answer 81 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracking on
A patient is receiving chemotherapy and has developed stomatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct choice: Consume cold foods to soothe the mucosa. Cold foods can help soothe the mucosa and reduce discomfort for patients with stomatitis caused by chemotherapy.\nIncorrect choices: A) Salty foods may irritate the mucosa further. B) Spicy foods can increase discomfort and irritation. C) High-fiber foods may be rough and abrasive, exacerbating the condition.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 day postoperative following hip replacement surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Urine output of 40 mL/hr. A low urine output may indicate kidney complications, such as acute kidney injury, which is a critical finding postoperatively. The nurse should report this immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a client who is 1 day postoperative following hip replacement surgery and do not indicate immediate concerns that require reporting to the provider.
How should a healthcare professional respond to a patient who is experiencing confusion after surgery?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is the most appropriate initial response to a patient experiencing confusion after surgery. Confusion can be a sign of hypoxia, which is inadequate oxygen supply to the brain. Administering oxygen helps ensure that the patient is getting enough oxygen, addressing a potential cause of the confusion. Repositioning the patient, encouraging deep breathing exercises, or performing a neurological exam may be necessary depending on the situation, but addressing potential hypoxia should be the priority in a confused post-operative patient.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Have the client wear sequential compression devices (SCDs). Following a cholecystectomy, the client is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to reduced mobility and surgical stress. SCDs help prevent VTE by promoting venous return and reducing the risk of blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While deep breathing and coughing exercises are essential postoperatively, SCDs take precedence in preventing VTE. Placing the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat can increase the risk of respiratory complications. Encouraging ambulation is important, but SCDs are a higher priority in this situation to prevent VTE.
What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.
How should a healthcare professional assess a patient for dehydration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Checking for skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity and hydration status. When a healthcare professional gently pinches the skin on the back of the patient's hand or forearm, dehydration is indicated by the skin not snapping back immediately. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but is more indicative of cardiovascular status rather than dehydration specifically. Checking for dry mucous membranes (choice C) can be a sign of dehydration, but skin turgor is a more direct assessment. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is also essential but may not provide immediate feedback on hydration status as skin turgor does.
A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary choices by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Leafy green vegetables. Leafy green vegetables are rich in calcium, which is essential for bone health and can help prevent bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. Carrots (choice A), while nutritious, are not as high in calcium as leafy green vegetables. Milk (choice B) is also a good source of calcium but may not be suitable for clients who are lactose intolerant. Bananas (choice D) are a healthy fruit choice but do not provide significant amounts of calcium needed for osteoporosis.
When managing blood pressure at home, which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by a nurse for hypertension?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because sitting quietly for 5 minutes before measuring blood pressure ensures an accurate reading and helps monitor hypertension. Choice A is incorrect as medications for hypertension should be taken as prescribed, not based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is not ideal as blood pressure should be checked more frequently, preferably daily. Choice C is incorrect as stopping medication abruptly once blood pressure is normal can lead to rebound hypertension.
A nurse is planning to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following should the nurse do to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type with the provider's prescription. This is crucial to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction due to incompatibility. Ensuring the blood type matches before starting the transfusion is a standard safety practice. Option B, ensuring client consent, is important but not directly related to preventing a transfusion reaction. Option C, administering a diuretic, is unnecessary and can be harmful in this context. Option D, checking the client's temperature, is important for general assessment but not specifically focused on preventing a transfusion reaction.
A client who had a colon resection and a new ascending colostomy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because avoiding popcorn and fresh pineapple helps prevent complications with an ascending colostomy. Statements A, B, and D are incorrect. Statement A is inaccurate as it takes time for bowel function to normalize after surgery. Statement B is incorrect as alcohol can be irritating to the skin; gentle soap and water are recommended for cleaning. Statement D is incorrect as bruising around the stoma is not an expected outcome of colostomy creation.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had a stroke. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Perform range-of-motion exercises daily. After a stroke, performing range-of-motion exercises can help prevent complications such as joint stiffness and contractures. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Anticoagulant medications are often prescribed to prevent blood clots after a stroke, fluid intake should be adequate unless indicated otherwise, and isometric exercises can be beneficial during recovery.
A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving education from a nurse on preventing long-term complications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'I will check my feet daily for any open sores or wounds.' This statement shows an understanding of the importance of foot care in preventing complications like diabetic foot ulcers. Monitoring blood glucose levels (choice A) is crucial but not directly related to foot care. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important for overall health but does not specifically address preventing long-term complications of diabetes. Consuming foods high in fiber (choice D) is beneficial for managing blood sugar levels but does not directly address preventing foot complications.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, a side effect of methotrexate, and should be reported. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate potential complications related to methotrexate therapy.
A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being taught about the medication's adverse effects by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Black, tarry stools can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious adverse effect of warfarin that requires immediate medical attention. Option A is incorrect because while bruising is a common side effect of warfarin, it is not limited to the elbows. Option B is incorrect as a red rash is not a typical adverse effect of warfarin. Option C is also incorrect because developing a cough is not a reason to discontinue warfarin unless advised by a healthcare provider.
A nurse is performing a gastric lavage for a client who has upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: 'Insert a large-bore NG tube.' When performing a gastric lavage for a client with upper gastrointestinal bleeding, a large-bore NG tube is used to effectively remove gastric contents and blood. Option A is incorrect because the amount of solution to instill depends on the specific situation and should be guided by the healthcare provider's order. Option C is incorrect because using a cold irrigation solution can lead to hypothermia and is not recommended. Option D is incorrect as there is no need to instruct the client to lie on his right side specifically for gastric lavage.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Clients taking clopidogrel should take the medication with a full glass of water to prevent gastrointestinal irritation. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to avoid foods high in potassium with clopidogrel. Choice B is unrelated to the medication's administration. Choice D is a duplication of choice C, providing no additional information.
A client is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of hypocalcemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Numbness and tingling of the fingers are classic signs of hypocalcemia, a condition that may result from inadvertent damage to the parathyroid glands during a thyroidectomy. These symptoms occur due to decreased levels of calcium in the bloodstream affecting nerve function. Choices A, C, and D are not typical manifestations of hypocalcemia. Constipation is more associated with hypercalcemia, increased thirst can be seen in diabetes or dehydration, and frequent urination is a symptom more commonly linked to conditions like diabetes or urinary tract issues.
A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type and Rh factor. This action is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered, matching the client's blood type and Rh factor, which helps prevent transfusion reactions. Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice A) is not directly related to ensuring the correct blood product is administered. Administering the blood over 8 hours (Choice C) is not the standard practice for packed RBCs, which are usually given over a shorter period. Using a 22-gauge needle for venous access (Choice D) is not specific to the preparation for administering packed RBCs.
A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Clients with hypertension should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium, which can raise potassium levels. Choice A is incorrect as decreasing potassium intake is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as not all clients with hypertension need to take medication for life. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice does not significantly impact hypertension management.
How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Flat T waves are a characteristic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes a decrease in serum potassium levels, leading to altered cardiac conduction. Flat T waves are associated with hypokalemia-induced cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated ST segments are typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Bradycardia is not a typical manifestation of hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia may occur due to potassium imbalances affecting the heart's electrical activity.
A healthcare provider is assisting with mass casualty triage following an explosion at a local factory. Which of the following clients should the healthcare provider identify as the priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a mass casualty situation, a client with hypovolemic shock should be the priority as they require immediate intervention to restore fluid volume and prevent further deterioration. Hypovolemic shock can lead to organ failure and death if not addressed promptly. While clients with other severe conditions like massive head trauma, full-thickness burns, or an open fracture also need urgent care, hypovolemic shock directly threatens the client's life due to inadequate circulating blood volume. Therefore, stabilizing the client with indications of hypovolemic shock takes precedence over others in this scenario.
A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because a urine output of 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of dehydration or kidney impairment postoperatively. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and D are within normal parameters for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery and do not raise immediate concerns. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing is an expected finding in the early postoperative period, a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is also within normal limits.
A client is receiving discharge instructions following a stroke. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Avoiding aspirin is crucial for this client as it can increase the risk of bleeding after a stroke. Choice B about consuming dairy products for calcium intake is not directly related to stroke management. Choice C regarding fluid intake is a good practice for overall health but not specifically related to stroke care. Choice D about limiting fiber intake is not typically a concern after a stroke unless there are specific complications that warrant it.
A client with a history of depression is experiencing a situational crisis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to confirm the client's perception of the event. In crisis intervention, understanding the client's perspective is crucial as it helps the nurse assess the situation accurately and provide tailored support. This step can also help build rapport and trust with the client. Option B, notifying the client's support system, may be important but should come after assessing the client's perception. Option C, helping the client identify personal strengths, and option D, teaching relaxation techniques, are valuable interventions but should follow the initial step of confirming the client's perception.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to avoid consuming foods high in vitamin K. Foods rich in vitamin K, such as leafy greens, can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Therefore, it is important for clients on warfarin therapy to maintain consistent vitamin K intake to keep their INR levels stable. The other options are also important but not the priority in the context of warfarin therapy. Ingesting foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's efficacy, making it crucial to highlight this dietary consideration during client education.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to apply cold packs to the affected extremity. Cold packs help reduce swelling and pain by causing vasoconstriction. Massaging the affected extremity could dislodge a clot, leading to serious complications. Encouraging bed rest may increase the risk of clot propagation, while frequent ambulation is contraindicated as it can dislodge clots.
A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.
A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods when taking furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges can help maintain adequate potassium levels. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products. Choice C is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, the general instruction is not to limit fluids to prevent dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually best taken during the day to avoid disrupting sleep with frequent urination.
A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering an intermittent enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube requires flushing the tube with 10 mL of sterile water before feeding. This action helps ensure patency and prevents clogging. Choice A is incorrect because flushing after feeding does not address the need for pre-feeding tube flushing. Choice C is unrelated to tube feeding administration. Choice D is incorrect as the height of the feeding bag above the abdomen is typically regulated by healthcare facility policies and is not a universal standard.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values indicates the TPN is effective?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL indicates that the TPN is effective in maintaining normal glucose levels. Hemoglobin level (choice B) is related to anemia and not directly indicative of TPN effectiveness. Albumin level (choice A) is a marker of nutritional status over a longer term and may not reflect immediate TPN effectiveness. White blood cell count (choice C) is related to infection or inflammation and is not a direct indicator of TPN effectiveness.
A client who practices Orthodox Judaism informs the nurse that he cannot eat certain foods during the Passover holiday. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the Passover holiday, individuals practicing Orthodox Judaism adhere to specific dietary restrictions, which include consuming unleavened bread. Providing unleavened bread aligns with the client's religious beliefs and dietary requirements. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Serving chicken with cream sauce, avoiding fish with fins and scales, and avoiding foods containing lamb are not directly related to the dietary restrictions observed during the Passover holiday in Orthodox Judaism.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of angina and reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. In a client with a history of angina and reporting chest pain, the priority action is to assess for myocardial infarction, which is best done through an ECG. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the provider can be important actions but obtaining an ECG takes precedence in evaluating the client's condition.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin and to adjust the infusion rate if needed. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for assessing anemia but is not specific to heparin therapy. INR (choice C) is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count (choice D) is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but aPTT is the primary laboratory value used to monitor heparin therapy.
A community health nurse is assessing an adolescent who is pregnant. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: Understanding of infant care. When assessing a pregnant adolescent, the priority is to ensure that she has the necessary knowledge and skills to care for her newborn. This assessment is crucial in promoting the health and well-being of both the adolescent mother and her baby. Option A, social relationships with peers, though important, is not the priority during this assessment. Option B, plans for attending school while pregnant, is also important but does not take precedence over ensuring the adolescent's understanding of infant care. Option C, eligibility for Medicaid, is important for accessing healthcare services but is not the priority assessment in this scenario.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a nasogastric tube for enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to prevent aspiration?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings is the correct intervention to prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and subsequent aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Flushing the tube with water before feedings (Choice A) is not necessary for preventing aspiration. Checking for gastric residuals (Choice B) helps monitor feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration. Placing the client in the left lateral position (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for preventing aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube.
A nurse is caring for a client who has diaper dermatitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct answer: Applying zinc oxide ointment to the irritated area is the most appropriate action for diaper dermatitis. Zinc oxide is a barrier cream that helps protect the skin and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because using store-bought baby wipes may contain chemicals or fragrances that can further irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect as talcum powder can also worsen the condition by drying out the skin. Choice D is incorrect because a warm compress is not typically used for diaper dermatitis; it may provide relief for other conditions but is not the best option for diaper dermatitis.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has a body mass index (BMI) of 24. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During the first trimester, it is recommended to increase caloric intake by 300 calories per day to support fetal growth and development. Choice A suggesting an increase of 600 calories is excessive and unnecessary. Choice C advising to maintain prepregnancy caloric intake could lead to inadequate nutrition for the developing fetus. Choice D recommending an increase of 150 calories is insufficient to meet the increased energy demands of pregnancy.
How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with respiratory distress?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is crucial in managing a patient with respiratory distress as it helps improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulties. While administering bronchodilators may be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD, in a patient with respiratory distress, ensuring adequate oxygen supply takes precedence. Checking oxygen saturation is important, but the immediate intervention to address respiratory distress is providing supplemental oxygen. Repositioning the patient may be helpful in optimizing ventilation but is not the primary intervention in managing acute respiratory distress.
A client with thrombocytopenia is receiving care from a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with thrombocytopenia, the platelet count is low, leading to a risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener is essential to prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, which can reduce the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is a good oral hygiene practice but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is related to infection control but does not address the specific risk of bleeding in thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (Choice D) is important in clients with neutropenia to prevent infections, not in thrombocytopenia.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to sunlight. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding to the provider so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent skin damage. Dry mouth, headache, and urinary retention are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and do not require immediate reporting to the provider in this scenario.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on loop diuretics?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is hypokalemia. Loop diuretics can cause potassium depletion leading to hypokalemia, which is particularly concerning as it can result in cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with loop diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less common in patients on loop diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is not a typical electrolyte imbalance associated with loop diuretics.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should identify that which of the following client reports is an indication of hypocalcemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: 'Numbness and tingling of the fingers.' Post-thyroidectomy, hypocalcemia is a concern due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands that regulate calcium levels. Numbness and tingling of the fingers are classic signs of hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Frequent urination (Choice B) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or a urinary tract infection. Increased thirst (Choice D) is commonly seen in conditions such as diabetes insipidus or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, not specifically related to hypocalcemia.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as low potassium can result in various complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia is high sodium levels, which are not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypercalcemia is elevated calcium levels and hypomagnesemia is low magnesium levels, which are not the primary electrolyte imbalances associated with furosemide.
A nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to insert the catheter at a 15-degree angle. This angle allows for easier venous access by ensuring proper catheter placement into the vein. Applying a tourniquet above the insertion site can help distend the vein for better visualization but is not the immediate action required for the insertion process. Shaving the area around the insertion site is not necessary unless there is excessive hair that may interfere with the insertion. Using an 18-gauge needle for insertion is a specific detail related to the equipment rather than the technique of insertion.
A nurse is caring for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Applying heat to inflamed joints can help relieve pain in clients with osteoarthritis. Heat therapy can help improve blood circulation, relax muscles, and reduce stiffness. Choice B, providing passive range-of-motion exercises, may be beneficial for joint mobility but is not the first-line intervention for pain relief in osteoarthritis. Choice C, encouraging prolonged use of NSAIDs, should be done cautiously due to potential side effects and should be guided by a healthcare provider. Choice D, applying cold packs to the joints, is not recommended for osteoarthritis as cold therapy can worsen stiffness and discomfort in this condition.
What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke is to perform a CT scan. A CT scan is crucial for diagnosing a stroke by visualizing any bleeding or blockages in the brain. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but it is not the primary intervention for a suspected stroke. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice C) is not indicated for stroke evaluation and may not provide relevant information. Administering anticoagulants (Choice D) is a treatment option for certain types of strokes but should be based on the CT scan results and specific guidelines.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Sodium 140 mEq/L. An elevated sodium level can affect the effectiveness of digoxin therapy and may lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the provider. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are important as well, but elevated sodium can have a more direct impact on digoxin therapy in this scenario.
A client is 24 hours postoperative following a right-sided mastectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the client's right arm on a pillow is essential post-mastectomy to reduce swelling and promote circulation. Placing the client in the supine position may not be comfortable or ideal after a mastectomy. Encouraging the client to lift objects with the right arm can strain the surgical site and hinder healing. Measuring the client's blood pressure on the right arm should be avoided to prevent disruption to the area and inaccurate readings.
A client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Clients with diabetes should eat a snack if their blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL, not 200 mg/dL. Option A is incorrect because checking blood glucose levels once a week may not provide adequate monitoring for someone with diabetes. Option B is incorrect as a strict limit of 50 grams of carbohydrates per day may not be suitable for everyone and can vary based on individual needs. Option C is incorrect as it is important for clients with diabetes to have a balanced diet that includes protein in moderation.
A nurse is caring for a client who has fibromyalgia and requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Pregabalin. Pregabalin is a first-line medication for treating pain in clients with fibromyalgia. It works by decreasing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Choice B, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not indicated for fibromyalgia pain. Choice C, Colchicine, is used to treat gout by reducing inflammation and not indicated for fibromyalgia. Choice D, Codeine, is an opioid analgesic that is not typically recommended for fibromyalgia due to concerns about tolerance and dependence.
A healthcare professional is receiving a telephone prescription from a provider for a client who requires additional medication for pain control. Which of the following entries should the professional make in the medical record?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct entry for the medication in the medical record should include the abbreviation 'SC' (subcutaneous) for the route of administration. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately represents the prescription received. Choice B is incorrect because it lacks the frequency and PRN indication. Choice C is incorrect due to the incorrect abbreviation 'subq' and the missing 'q' before the frequency. Choice D is incorrect because it uses 'SC' but the frequency abbreviation 'q' should be followed by the time interval.
A nurse is preparing to administer dopamine hydrochloride at 4 mcg/kg/min for a client weighing 80 kg. How many mL/hr should the nurse set the IV infusion to deliver?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
To calculate the correct rate, you first need to convert the weight to micrograms: 4 mcg/kg/min * 80 kg = 320 mcg/min. Then, convert micrograms to milligrams: 320 mcg/min / 1000 = 0.32 mg/min. Next, calculate how many milligrams per hour: 0.32 mg/min * 60 min/hr = 19.2 mg/hr. Finally, determine the mL/hr rate by using the concentration provided: 19.2 mg/hr / 800 mg in 250 mL = 6 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 6 mL/hr. Choice B, 8 mL/hr, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation based on the weight and drug concentration. Choices C and D, 12 mL/hr and 16 mL/hr, are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation of the infusion rate for dopamine hydrochloride based on the client's weight and the medication concentration.
A client who has a new prescription for lisinopril is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Lisinopril can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because lisinopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause increased urination, so fluid intake should not be limited.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postpartum and is breastfeeding her newborn. The client asks the nurse to warm up seaweed soup that her partner brought for her. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Respecting cultural preferences promotes trust and client-centered care.
What is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism. Maintaining adequate oxygenation is crucial in these patients to prevent hypoxemia and support oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering anticoagulants may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators is not indicated for pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient does not address the immediate need for oxygenation.
A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs is to check the client's identification band. This step is crucial to ensure that the correct blood is administered to the right client, preventing any errors or adverse reactions. Verifying the provider's prescription, priming the IV tubing, and obtaining the client's vital signs are important steps in the process but should follow the initial identification check to prioritize patient safety.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about using a portable oxygen system. What instruction should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to check the oxygen level regularly using a pulse oximeter. This instruction is crucial as it ensures safe and adequate oxygenation for the client. Option A is incorrect as oxygen should not be stored in a storage room but in a well-ventilated area. Option B is not ideal as oxygen should be left on unless otherwise specified by a healthcare provider. Option D is also important but not directly related to the primary instruction of monitoring oxygen levels.
A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is the best predictor of future violence as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future. While experiencing delusions and being male may contribute to an increased risk of violence in certain situations, they are not as strong predictors as a history of violence. Similarly, having a history of being in prison may indicate a higher likelihood of violence, but it is not as directly linked to future violent behavior as previous violent actions.
A nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct instruction for self-administration of enoxaparin is to inject it into the fat tissue of the abdomen for proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect as enoxaparin should not be injected into the muscle. Choice B is unnecessary for enoxaparin administration. Choice C is incorrect as rubbing the injection site after administering the medication is not recommended.
A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action the nurse should take when administering vancomycin IV is to assess the IV site for infiltration during administration. Vancomycin is known to cause tissue damage if it infiltrates, making close monitoring crucial. Administering the medication over 30 minutes (Choice A) is a common practice but not the priority in preventing infiltration. Monitoring for a decrease in blood pressure (Choice B) is not directly related to vancomycin administration. Premedicating with an antiemetic (Choice D) is not typically required for vancomycin administration.
When digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction, what action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action when digitally evacuating stool from a client with a fecal impaction is to insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall. This technique helps prevent trauma to the client. Choice B is incorrect because stimulating peristalsis is not the appropriate action for digitally evacuating stool. Choice C is incorrect as applying pressure to the abdomen can be uncomfortable and ineffective. Choice D is also incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not directly related to the digital evacuation procedure.
A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing fluid overload?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In clients with chronic heart failure, bounding peripheral pulses are a classic sign of fluid overload. This occurs due to increased volume in the arterial system, causing a forceful pulse. Increased urine output (Choice A) is often seen in clients with fluid volume deficit, not overload. Weight loss (Choice C) is also inconsistent with fluid overload as it suggests a fluid deficit. Decreased heart rate (Choice D) is more commonly associated with conditions like bradycardia, hypothyroidism, or the use of certain medications, but not specifically indicative of fluid overload in chronic heart failure.
A nurse is caring for a 5-month-old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy. The guardian asks, 'What are the indications that my baby needs an IV?' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. A lack of tear production is a sign of severe dehydration in infants, indicating the need for IV therapy. Option B, bulging fontanels, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure, not dehydration. Option C, breathing slower than normal, and Option D, decreasing heart rate, are not specific signs of severe dehydration that would indicate the need for IV therapy in this case.
A patient is scheduled to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Priming the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride is crucial before administering packed RBCs as it prevents hemolysis and ensures the safe transfusion of blood. Using a smaller 20- to 22-gauge IV catheter is recommended for packed RBCs to prevent hemolysis due to the small tubing size and faster flow rate. Obtaining filterless IV tubing is incorrect as blood products should be administered through a specialized filter to prevent potential clots or contaminants from reaching the patient. Placing blood in the warmer for an hour is unnecessary and could lead to overheating, potentially causing harm to the patient.
A healthcare provider is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the healthcare provider to delegate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D: Transporting a client to x-ray.' This task is appropriate for delegation to assistive personnel as it involves transferring the client safely from one location to another, which does not require the specialized skills of a healthcare provider. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank (Choice A) involves making clinical decisions that should be done by a licensed healthcare provider. Collecting a urine sample (Choice B) and measuring the client's pain level (Choice C) require critical thinking and assessment skills that are typically within the scope of practice of licensed healthcare providers, not assistive personnel.
A healthcare professional is preparing education material for a client. Which of the following techniques should the professional use in creating material?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to 'Use a 7th-grade reading level.' This ensures that the material is accessible to most clients by keeping the language simple and easy to understand. Emphasizing important information using bold lettering (Choice A) can be helpful but may not enhance overall readability. Avoiding cartoons (Choice C) is not a universal rule and can sometimes make the material more engaging. Using words with three or four syllables (Choice D) can make the material difficult to comprehend for many clients.
A client in active labor has ruptured membranes. What action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When a client in active labor has ruptured membranes, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a fetal heart rate monitor. This is crucial for continuous monitoring of the baby's heart rate and ensuring fetal well-being. Initiating fundal massage may be indicated for uterine atony after delivery, not for ruptured membranes during labor. Administering oxytocin IV could be appropriate in some cases to augment labor, but it is not the immediate priority after ruptured membranes. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not necessary solely based on ruptured membranes; it may be indicated for specific situations like epidural anesthesia where the client cannot void.
A nurse is teaching a client about the physiological changes that occur with aging. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Decreased sense of taste. As individuals age, they may experience a decrease in their sense of taste due to changes in taste buds and a decrease in saliva production. This can lead to a reduced ability to taste flavors or distinguish between different tastes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased blood pressure is not a consistent physiological change with aging; instead, blood pressure may increase or remain stable. Gastric secretions tend to decrease with age, leading to issues like decreased absorption of certain nutrients. Accommodation to near vision typically decreases with age, causing a condition known as presbyopia, where individuals have difficulty focusing on close objects.
A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C because limiting saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories is a crucial component of the dietary management for hypertension. This dietary modification helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because medication adherence should not be based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is inadequate as blood pressure monitoring should be more frequent, preferably daily, for effective management of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because medication for hypertension should be taken consistently as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.
A client is receiving continuous IV nitroprusside for severe hypertension. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to limit IV exposure to light. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, and exposure to light can lead to its degradation, potentially reducing its efficacy in treating severe hypertension. Keeping calcium gluconate at the bedside (Choice A) is not directly related to managing nitroprusside infusion. While monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours (Choice B) is important in managing hypertension, it is not the immediate action required to ensure medication efficacy. Attaching an inline filter to the IV tubing (Choice D) may help filter particles but does not address the critical concern of light sensitivity associated with nitroprusside administration.
A nurse is preparing to perform a bladder scan for a client who has overflow incontinence. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to prepare the client for urinary catheterization. Overflow incontinence may indicate bladder distention, where a bladder scan helps assess the need for catheterization. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is not directly related to the procedure. Obtaining a prescription for an indwelling catheter (Choice B) is not necessary before performing a bladder scan. Cleansing the client's abdomen with an antiseptic solution (Choice C) is not specific to preparing for a bladder scan in this situation.
A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In a client with pericarditis, the priority finding is a paradoxical pulse. This is a crucial sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, causing compression of the heart. A paradoxical pulse is an exaggerated decrease in systolic blood pressure (>10 mmHg) during inspiration. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent hemodynamic instability and cardiac arrest. Dependent edema (choice B) is not typically associated with pericarditis. Pericardial friction rub (choice C) is a common finding in pericarditis but does not indicate the urgency of intervention as a paradoxical pulse. Substernal chest pain (choice D) is a classic symptom of pericarditis but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse in the context of assessing for complications.
A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When setting up a sterile field for a dressing change, the nurse should open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body. This action helps maintain the sterility of the field by minimizing the risk of contamination. Option A is incorrect because the cap from the solution should be placed sterile side down to prevent contamination. Option C is incorrect because the sterile dressing should be placed at least 1.25 cm away from the edge of the sterile field to maintain its sterility. Option D is incorrect because the sterile field should be set up above waist level to prevent potential contamination from reaching the field.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.
A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 110/min is elevated and may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication following a thyroidectomy. Elevated heart rate can be a sign of hypocalcemia due to the close relationship between calcium levels and cardiac function. Option A, serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL, is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and would not be a cause for concern post-thyroidectomy. Option B, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range for urine output and not typically a priority finding post-thyroidectomy. Option D, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F), is slightly elevated but not a critical finding post-thyroidectomy unless accompanied by other symptoms.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. An INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients receiving warfarin. It is crucial to report this finding to the provider before surgery to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustments to prevent excessive bleeding risks. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not directly impact the client's surgery preparation or risk for bleeding, so they do not require immediate reporting.
A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 110/min is elevated and may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication following a thyroidectomy. Elevated heart rate can be a sign of hypocalcemia due to the close relationship between calcium levels and cardiac function. Option A, serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL, is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and would not be a cause for concern post-thyroidectomy. Option B, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range for urine output and not typically a priority finding post-thyroidectomy. Option D, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F), is slightly elevated but not a critical finding post-thyroidectomy unless accompanied by other symptoms.
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