ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet
1. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:
- A. It is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels
- B. It is slower than the primary response and doesn't change the antibody levels
- C. It occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies
- D. It only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease in antibodies
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.
2. An influenza outbreak has spread through a long-term care residence, affecting many of the residents with severe malaise, fever, and nausea and vomiting. In an effort to curb the outbreak, the nurse has liaised with a physician to see if residents may be candidates for treatment with what drug?
- A. Saquinavir mesylate
- B. Oseltamivir phosphate
- C. Lamivudine
- D. Ribavirin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oseltamivir phosphate. Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza infections. It works by inhibiting the neuraminidase enzyme of the influenza virus, reducing the spread of the virus in the body. Saquinavir mesylate (choice A) is used in the treatment of HIV, not influenza. Lamivudine (choice C) is also an antiviral medication primarily used in the treatment of HIV and hepatitis B, not influenza. Ribavirin (choice D) is used to treat certain viral infections like hepatitis C, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), and some viral hemorrhagic fevers, but it is not a first-line treatment for influenza.
3. Why is it important for a patient to take a new oral contraceptive at the same time each day?
- A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels, which is critical for preventing pregnancy.
- B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
- C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
- D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day is crucial for maintaining stable hormone levels, which is essential for the contraceptive's effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for taking the medication consistently is hormone level stability, not specifically to reduce breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on absorption and effectiveness, which are important but do not address the main reason for consistent timing. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses can impact contraceptive efficacy, making consistent timing essential for optimal protection.
4. When treating a patient for a fungal infection with IV amphotericin B, what should the nurse consistently monitor the patient's levels of to prevent drug discomfort?
- A. sodium
- B. hemoglobin
- C. calcium
- D. leukocytes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is being treated with IV amphotericin B for a fungal infection, it is crucial to monitor the patient's calcium levels consistently. IV amphotericin B can cause hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and most notably, hypocalcemia. Monitoring calcium levels helps prevent drug-related discomfort and adverse effects. Sodium (Choice A), hemoglobin (Choice B), and leukocytes (Choice D) are not the primary parameters to monitor specifically for drug discomfort related to amphotericin B. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
5. A 30-year-old male is being treated with testosterone enanthate for delayed puberty. What side effect should the nurse inform the patient about?
- A. Increased libido
- B. Decreased muscle mass
- C. Breast tenderness
- D. Increased aggression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should inform the patient about when receiving testosterone enanthate therapy for delayed puberty is increased aggression. Testosterone therapy can lead to mood changes, including increased aggression in some individuals. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to educate patients about this potential side effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because testosterone therapy is more likely to increase libido, promote muscle mass growth, and may cause breast tenderness due to hormonal imbalances.
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