ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet
1. A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating:
- A. Leukemia
- B. Sideroblastic anemia
- C. Hemosiderosis
- D. Polycythemia vera
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the symptoms of a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness along with an increased number of erythrocytes in the blood smear are indicative of polycythemia vera. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms related to increased blood volume and viscosity. Leukemia (Choice A) is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, but the presentation described here is more suggestive of polycythemia vera. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by abnormal iron deposits in erythroblasts, not an increased number of erythrocytes. Hemosiderosis (Choice C) refers to abnormal accumulation of iron in the body, not an increase in red blood cells as seen in polycythemia vera.
2. A client arrives with symptoms of stroke. What should the nurse assess first?
- A. Level of consciousness
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Pupil reaction
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the level of consciousness is a critical first step in evaluating a potential stroke. Changes in the level of consciousness can indicate the severity and location of brain damage, helping to guide immediate interventions. Assessing blood pressure, pupil reaction, and heart rate are also important aspects of the assessment in a suspected stroke patient. However, the priority is to quickly determine the client's level of consciousness to assess their neurological status.
3. A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?
- A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B. Protease inhibitors
- C. Entrance inhibitors
- D. Highly active antiretroviral therapy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). HAART involves a combination of different classes of antiretroviral drugs, which can effectively suppress the HIV virus, reduce the viral load, and improve the immune function. While choices A, B, and C are also used in HIV treatment, the most effective approach is a combination therapy like HAART due to its ability to target the virus at different stages of its life cycle, reducing the risk of drug resistance and improving treatment outcomes.
4. A 60-year-old male patient is receiving androgen therapy for the treatment of hypogonadism. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hepatotoxicity
- B. Nephrotoxicity
- C. Cardiotoxicity
- D. Pulmonary toxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Androgen therapy, such as testosterone, can lead to hepatotoxicity, which is toxic to the liver. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient's liver function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because androgen therapy is not typically associated with nephrotoxicity, cardiotoxicity, or pulmonary toxicity.
5. A nurse is educating a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should avoid walking for long periods to prevent leg pain.
- B. I should inspect my feet daily for any sores or wounds.
- C. I should wear compression stockings to improve circulation.
- D. I should avoid smoking to prevent further damage to my arteries.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Walking is crucial in improving circulation in peripheral artery disease; therefore, the client should not avoid walking for long periods. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements for a client with PAD. Inspecting feet daily helps in early detection of sores or wounds, wearing compression stockings improves circulation, and avoiding smoking helps prevent further damage to arteries in PAD.
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