ati pathophysiology quizlet ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet

1. A patient has been prescribed raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding the action of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Selectively binds to estrogen receptors, decreasing bone resorption. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that works by binding to estrogen receptors, thereby decreasing bone resorption. This action helps in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis by preserving bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because raloxifene does not directly affect calcium excretion by the kidneys, intestinal absorption of calcium, or stimulate bone formation by increasing osteoblast activity.

2. A patient is prescribed estradiol (Estrace) for hormone replacement therapy. What should the nurse monitor during this therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During estradiol therapy, the nurse should monitor liver function tests. Estradiol can potentially impact liver function, making it essential to assess for any signs of liver dysfunction. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to estradiol therapy. While blood glucose levels (Choice B) should be monitored in patients taking certain medications like corticosteroids or antipsychotics, it is not typically necessary for patients on estradiol therapy. Kidney function tests (Choice D) are not the priority for monitoring during estradiol therapy, as the liver is more commonly affected.

3. A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). HAART involves a combination of different classes of antiretroviral drugs, which can effectively suppress the HIV virus, reduce the viral load, and improve the immune function. While choices A, B, and C are also used in HIV treatment, the most effective approach is a combination therapy like HAART due to its ability to target the virus at different stages of its life cycle, reducing the risk of drug resistance and improving treatment outcomes.

4. When a healthcare professional observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6 to 14 hours after death, the healthcare professional should document this finding as _____ present.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rigor mortis. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of muscles after death, typically beginning within 6 to 14 hours. Livor mortis (choice A) refers to the pooling of blood in the lowest tissues causing discoloration, gangrene (choice B) is the death of body tissue due to lack of blood flow, and algor mortis (choice C) is the cooling of the body after death.

5. A college student has a TB test prior to starting the semester. The tuberculin test site is noted with a reddened, raised area. What condition will the student be diagnosed with if the chest radiograph is negative?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If the chest radiograph is negative despite a positive tuberculin skin test, the student will be diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection. Latent tuberculosis means the student has the TB bacteria in their body but does not feel sick and cannot spread the disease. Choice A, 'Transmission,' is incorrect as it refers to the spread of TB from person to person. Choice B, 'Primary infection,' is incorrect because primary infection occurs when a person is first infected with the TB bacteria. Choice D, 'Active tuberculosis,' is incorrect as this refers to the active form of the disease where the person feels sick and can spread TB to others.

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