ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet
1. Which of the following nonpharmacologic treatments is most likely to be a useful and appropriate supplement to pharmacologic analgesia at this point?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- B. Cold and heat application
- C. Therapeutic ultrasound
- D. Biofeedback
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cold and heat application. Cold and heat application are commonly used nonpharmacologic methods for managing pain and can complement pharmacologic treatments. Cold packs can help reduce inflammation and numb localized areas, while heat application can increase blood flow and relax muscles. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (A) focuses on changing negative thought patterns and behaviors to manage pain but may not directly supplement pharmacologic analgesia. Therapeutic ultrasound (C) uses sound waves to generate heat within body tissues, which can be therapeutic, but it may not be as directly complementary to pharmacologic analgesia as cold and heat application. Biofeedback (D) involves using electronic devices to help individuals control physiological processes, but its direct role as a supplement to pharmacologic analgesia may be less pronounced compared to cold and heat application.
2. A patient is prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for the treatment of endometriosis. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure while taking this medication.
- D. Discontinue the medication if side effects occur.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. This is crucial for the drug to work optimally. Choice A is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone acetate does not necessarily need to be taken with food to prevent nausea. Choice C is not directly related to the medication's administration and is not a common teaching point for this drug. Choice D is incorrect as discontinuing the medication abruptly can lead to adverse effects and is not recommended without consulting a healthcare provider.
3. A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?
- A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B. Protease inhibitors
- C. Entrance inhibitors
- D. Highly active antiretroviral therapy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). HAART involves a combination of different classes of antiretroviral drugs, which can effectively suppress the HIV virus, reduce the viral load, and improve the immune function. While choices A, B, and C are also used in HIV treatment, the most effective approach is a combination therapy like HAART due to its ability to target the virus at different stages of its life cycle, reducing the risk of drug resistance and improving treatment outcomes.
4. A 57-year-old male presents to his primary care provider with a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness. A blood smear reveals an increased number of erythrocytes, indicating:
- A. Leukemia
- B. Sideroblastic anemia
- C. Hemosiderosis
- D. Polycythemia vera
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the symptoms of a red face, hands, feet, ears, headache, and drowsiness along with an increased number of erythrocytes in the blood smear are indicative of polycythemia vera. This condition is characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells, leading to symptoms related to increased blood volume and viscosity. Leukemia (Choice A) is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, but the presentation described here is more suggestive of polycythemia vera. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice B) is characterized by abnormal iron deposits in erythroblasts, not an increased number of erythrocytes. Hemosiderosis (Choice C) refers to abnormal accumulation of iron in the body, not an increase in red blood cells as seen in polycythemia vera.
5. During an acute asthma exacerbation, what is the priority nursing intervention for a client with asthma?
- A. Administer corticosteroids to reduce airway inflammation.
- B. Position the client in high-Fowler's position.
- C. Administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed.
- D. Obtain a peak flow reading to assess the severity of the exacerbation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention during an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) as prescribed. SABAs help in quickly relieving bronchospasm and are considered the first-line treatment for acute exacerbations. Administering corticosteroids, positioning the client, and obtaining a peak flow reading are important interventions but come after administering SABAs in the management of acute asthma exacerbation.
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