ati perfusion quizlet ATI Perfusion Quizlet - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Perfusion Quizlet

1. A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about increasing oral intake of

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: cobalamin (vitamin B12). Methotrexate can lead to a deficiency in cobalamin, resulting in megaloblastic anemia. Therefore, increasing the oral intake of cobalamin is essential to address this deficiency. Choice A, iron, is incorrect because megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate is not typically due to iron deficiency. Choice B, folic acid, is also incorrect as methotrexate does not directly cause folic acid deficiency. Choice D, ascorbic acid (vitamin C), is incorrect as it is not directly related to megaloblastic anemia caused by methotrexate; instead, cobalamin is the key vitamin that needs attention.

2. Which instruction will the nurse plan to include in discharge teaching for a patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid exposure to crowds when possible.' This instruction is crucial in discharge teaching for a patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis because exposure to crowds increases the risk of infection, which is the most common cause of sickle cell crisis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking a daily multivitamin with iron (Choice A) may be beneficial for some individuals but is not specifically related to managing sickle cell crisis. Limiting fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day (Choice B) is not typically recommended for patients with sickle cell crisis, as adequate hydration is important. Drinking only two caffeinated beverages daily (Choice D) is not a priority instruction in managing sickle cell crisis.

3. The health care provider orders a liver and spleen scan for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash. Which action should the nurse take before this procedure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before a liver and spleen scan, it is essential to assist the patient to a flat position. This position helps obtain clear images of the liver and spleen. Checking for iodine allergy (Choice A) is more relevant for procedures involving contrast dye, not a liver and spleen scan. Inserting a large-bore IV catheter (Choice B) may not be necessary for this specific procedure. Administering sedatives (Choice C) is not typically required for a liver and spleen scan, as the patient needs to remain still during the procedure.

4. A patient is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following a motor vehicle crash. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. After a splenectomy, the patient is at an increased risk of infection, particularly from gram-positive bacteria. Washing hands and avoiding contact with individuals who are ill are crucial to reduce this risk. Choice A is incorrect because checking for swollen lymph nodes is not a priority after a splenectomy. Choice B is incorrect as while bleeding is a concern, it is more immediate post-operatively. Choice C is incorrect as iron supplements do not specifically relate to the risk of infection post-splenectomy.

5. Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Absolute neutrophil count. Filgrastim (Neupogen) works by stimulating the production and function of neutrophils. Therefore, monitoring the Absolute neutrophil count is crucial to assess the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophil levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because platelet count, reticulocyte count, and total lymphocyte count do not directly reflect the effectiveness of filgrastim in increasing neutrophils, which are essential in fighting infections during chemotherapy.

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ATI TEAS 7 Exam Overview

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