ATI RN
ATI Perfusion Quizlet
1. The complete blood count (CBC) indicates that a patient is thrombocytopenic. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Avoid intramuscular injections.
- B. Encourage increased oral fluids.
- C. Check temperature every 4 hours.
- D. Increase intake of iron-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action to include in the plan of care for a thrombocytopenic patient is to avoid intramuscular injections. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a decreased number of platelets, which are essential for blood clotting. Intramuscular injections can pose a risk of bleeding in patients with low platelet counts. Encouraging increased oral fluids (choice B) is beneficial for hydration but does not directly address the risk of bleeding associated with thrombocytopenia. Checking temperature every 4 hours (choice C) is important for monitoring infection but does not specifically address the risk of bleeding. Increasing intake of iron-rich foods (choice D) is more related to addressing anemia, not the primary concern of bleeding in thrombocytopenia.
2. The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient?
- A. Are you taking any oral contraceptives?
- B. Have you been prescribed antiseizure drugs?
- C. Do you take medication containing salicylates?
- D. How long have you been taking antihypertensive drugs?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Do you take medication containing salicylates?' Petechiae are tiny, pinpoint, red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Salicylates, which are found in medications like aspirin, interfere with platelet function and can lead to petechiae and ecchymoses. Asking about salicylate-containing medications is crucial in this situation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the development of petechiae.
3. A patient who has acute myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850/µL while receiving outpatient chemotherapy. Which action by the outpatient clinic nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Discuss the need for hospital admission to treat the neutropenia
- B. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections
- C. Plan to discontinue the chemotherapy until the neutropenia resolves
- D. Order a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter for the patient's home
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because filgrastim (Neupogen) is a medication used to stimulate the production of neutrophils. Teaching the patient to self-administer these injections can help increase the neutrophil count and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is incorrect as hospital admission may not be necessary if the patient can manage the condition at home. Option C is not ideal as discontinuing chemotherapy can impact the leukemia treatment. Option D is unrelated to managing neutropenia in this scenario.
4. A patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before obtaining and administering platelets?
- A. Platelet count is 42,000/µL
- B. Petechiae are present on the chest
- C. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg
- D. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/µL unless the patient is actively bleeding. In this case, with a platelet count of 42,000/µL, the count is not critically low, and the patient is not actively bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should consult with the healthcare provider before giving the transfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the presence of petechiae, low blood pressure, and oozing from the venipuncture site are common findings in patients with ITP and do not necessarily require immediate consultation before administering a platelet transfusion.
5. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
- A. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
- B. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
- C. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
- D. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.
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