Nursing Elites

1. Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse?

• A. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain
• B. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8°F
• C. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing gums after a tooth extraction
• D. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a neutropenic patient with a fever is at high risk for developing sepsis. Sepsis can progress rapidly and lead to life-threatening complications. Immediate assessment, obtaining cultures, and initiating antibiotic therapy are essential in this situation. Choices A, C, and D do not present with the same level of urgency as a neutropenic patient with a fever. Abdominal pain in a hemochromatosis patient, oozing gums after a tooth extraction in a thrombocytopenic patient, and nausea and diarrhea in a patient with sickle cell anemia, while concerning, do not indicate the same immediate risk of sepsis as a neutropenic patient with a fever.

2. During a physical assessment, the nurse examines the lymph nodes of a patient. Which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse?

• A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node
• B. A 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node
• C. An inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes
• D. Firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node is of most concern because enlarged and nontender nodes in this area are highly suggestive of malignancies such as lymphoma. Choice B is less concerning as a 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node is usually benign. Choice C, an inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes, could be due to factors like obesity or edema, but it is not necessarily a cause for immediate concern. Choice D, firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot, may indicate a local reaction to infection rather than a systemic issue related to malignancy.

3. A patient who has acute myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850/µL while receiving outpatient chemotherapy. Which action by the outpatient clinic nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Discuss the need for hospital admission to treat the neutropenia
• B. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections
• C. Plan to discontinue the chemotherapy until the neutropenia resolves
• D. Order a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter for the patient's home

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because filgrastim (Neupogen) is a medication used to stimulate the production of neutrophils. Teaching the patient to self-administer these injections can help increase the neutrophil count and reduce the risk of infection. Option A is incorrect as hospital admission may not be necessary if the patient can manage the condition at home. Option C is not ideal as discontinuing chemotherapy can impact the leukemia treatment. Option D is unrelated to managing neutropenia in this scenario.

4. The health care provider's progress note for a patient states that the complete blood count (CBC) shows a 'shift to the left.' Which assessment finding will the nurse expect?

• A. Cool extremities
• B. Pallor and weakness
• C. Elevated temperature
• D. Low oxygen saturation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated temperature. When a CBC shows a 'shift to the left,' it indicates elevated levels of immature polymorphonuclear neutrophils (bands), which is a sign of infection. In response to the infection, the body increases its temperature as part of the immune response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cool extremities, pallor and weakness, and low oxygen saturation are not typically associated with a 'shift to the left' in a CBC; they are more indicative of other conditions or issues.

5. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow

• A. A 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla
• B. A 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue
• C. A 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement
• D. A 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says his eyes always look sort of yellow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the scenario describes a 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who presents with chronic fatigue. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia commonly presents with symptoms like fatigue, weight loss, and enlarged lymph nodes. The other choices are less likely as they do not match the clinical presentation described in the scenario. Choice A describes a 23-year-old with a nontender lump in the axilla, which is more suggestive of a benign condition like a lipoma. Choice C describes a 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement, which is unrelated to the symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. Choice D repeats the scenario, which is not relevant in selecting the appropriate answer.

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