ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers
1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?
- A. PT/INR
- B. aPTT
- C. Platelet count
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.
2. What procedure uses a catheter to open up a blocked or narrowed coronary artery, often involving the placement of a stent?
- A. Angioplasty
- B. Echocardiogram
- C. CT angiography
- D. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Angioplasty. Angioplasty is a procedure that uses a catheter to open up a blocked or narrowed coronary artery, often involving the placement of a stent. Echocardiogram is a diagnostic test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart. CT angiography is a type of imaging test that looks at blood vessels, but it does not involve the placement of a stent. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) is a surgical procedure to improve blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked coronary arteries.
3. What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?
- A. Decreases heart rate
- B. Increases heart rate
- C. Increases blood pressure
- D. Decreases blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers primarily work by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. While these medications can have secondary effects on the heart, such as reducing the workload of the heart muscle, the primary effect related to blood pressure regulation. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the primary action of calcium channel blockers on the heart.
4. The client is given an alpha agonist. What might it be used for?
- A. For hemostasis
- B. To dilate the arteries
- C. To dilate the veins
- D. To decrease afterload
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Alpha agonists are used for hemostasis to help control bleeding by constricting blood vessels, leading to decreased blood flow to the area. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as alpha agonists do not typically dilate arteries, dilate veins, or decrease afterload.
5. What condition is characterized by the inflammation of the pleura, causing sharp chest pain that worsens with breathing?
- A. Pleurisy
- B. Pericarditis
- C. Endocarditis
- D. Myocarditis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Pleurisy. Pleurisy is the inflammation of the pleura, the lining surrounding the lungs, which causes sharp chest pain that worsens with breathing. Pericarditis (choice B) is the inflammation of the pericardium, the sac around the heart, which typically causes chest pain that worsens when lying down. Endocarditis (choice C) is the inflammation of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves, leading to symptoms like fever, fatigue, and abnormal heart sounds. Myocarditis (choice D) is inflammation of the heart muscle, which can cause symptoms such as chest pain, fatigue, and shortness of breath.
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