cardiovascular system exam questions and answers Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers - Nursing Elites
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

1. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

2. What is a condition where a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the legs, and can lead to serious complications if it travels to the lungs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Deep vein thrombosis occurs when a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the legs. If the clot dislodges and travels to the lungs, it can lead to a serious condition called a pulmonary embolism. Choice B, pulmonary embolism, is incorrect as it is the consequence of a DVT clot traveling to the lungs, not the initial condition. Choices C and D, varicose veins, and Raynaud's disease, respectively, are unrelated conditions to the formation of blood clots in deep veins.

3. Which procedure is used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with arrhythmias, typically using electrical shocks?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardioversion. Cardioversion is the procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in patients with arrhythmias by delivering controlled electrical shocks to the heart. Choice B, Defibrillation, is incorrect because defibrillation is used to treat life-threatening arrhythmias by delivering an unsynchronized high-energy shock to the heart. Choice C, Ablation, is incorrect as it involves destroying abnormal tissue that causes arrhythmias, not necessarily restoring normal heart rhythm. Choice D, Angioplasty, is unrelated to heart rhythm restoration and is a procedure to open blocked or narrowed blood vessels.

4. The nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers. What is the most important side effect to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important side effect to monitor when a client is on beta blockers is hypotension. Beta blockers can cause a significant drop in blood pressure, especially at the initiation of therapy. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, syncope, or falls. While bradycardia can also occur with beta blockers, hypotension takes precedence due to its immediate impact on perfusion. Hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of beta blockers. Tachycardia is actually a condition that beta blockers aim to treat, so it is not a side effect to monitor.

5. What is a condition where the heart's electrical impulses are blocked or delayed, leading to a slower or irregular heartbeat?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heart block is the correct answer. It is a condition where the electrical impulses in the heart are blocked or delayed, resulting in a slower or irregular heartbeat. This can lead to symptoms like dizziness, fainting, or other issues. Atrial fibrillation (B) is characterized by rapid, irregular heartbeats. Tachycardia (C) is a condition where the heart rate is too fast. Bradycardia (D) is the opposite of tachycardia, where the heart rate is too slow.

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