ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the client has a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome. The client asks, 'What is that?' How should the nursing student reply?
- A. A type of paralysis that affects movement on both sides of the body. It may even involve the respiratory muscles.
- B. Swelling of your arm where you got your flu shot and maybe your eyes and lips had some swelling as well.
- C. A degenerative disease where you have trouble walking without the help of a cane or walker.
- D. Influenza-like illness where you had fever and chills for 2 to 3 days after your last flu shot.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that can lead to paralysis affecting movement on both sides of the body, and in severe cases, involving the respiratory muscles. Choice B is incorrect as it describes local swelling, not the systemic effects of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a degenerative disease affecting mobility, not an acute immune-mediated condition like Guillain-Barré syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as it describes flu-like symptoms following a flu shot, which is not the same as Guillain-Barré syndrome.
2. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is indicated for the treatment of women with
- A. uterine bleeding.
- B. cervical cancer.
- C. ovarian cancer.
- D. fibromyalgia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is commonly used to treat conditions like abnormal uterine bleeding, amenorrhea, and endometriosis. It helps regulate the menstrual cycle and reduce excessive bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, cervical cancer, is incorrect because Provera is not indicated for the treatment of cancer. Choice C, ovarian cancer, is also incorrect as Provera is not a primary treatment for ovarian cancer. Choice D, fibromyalgia, is unrelated to the use of medroxyprogesterone acetate.
3. During surgery, the anesthesia personnel notice the client is having a steady rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide level. At this time, the nurse anesthetist begins to assess the client for malignant hyperthermia. The initial (priority) assessment for this disorder may include:
- A. measuring serum potassium levels.
- B. monitoring for muscle rigidity.
- C. evaluating renal function.
- D. checking arterial blood gases.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: monitoring for muscle rigidity. Muscle rigidity is a hallmark sign of malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetics. Monitoring for this sign is critical in the early identification of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial priority assessments for malignant hyperthermia. Measuring serum potassium levels, evaluating renal function, and checking arterial blood gases are not specific initial assessments for malignant hyperthermia and would not aid in its early identification.
4. A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?
- A. History of hypertension
- B. Use of nitrates
- C. Use of antihypertensive medications
- D. History of peptic ulcer disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients using nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and tadalafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of hypertension, the use of antihypertensive medications, and a history of peptic ulcer disease are not direct contraindications for tadalafil use.
5. Which of the following is a characteristic of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS?
- A. HIV only infects B cells
- B. HIV is a retrovirus
- C. Infection does not require a host cell receptor
- D. After infection, cell death is immediate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. HIV is a retrovirus that infects T cells and leads to the gradual destruction of the immune system. Choice A is incorrect because HIV infects T cells primarily, not just B cells. Choice C is incorrect because HIV infection requires host cell receptors for entry. Choice D is incorrect because cell death after HIV infection is not immediate; instead, the virus gradually weakens the immune system over time.
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