Free ATI RN Custom Exams practice for ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5 (ATI RN). Answer 90 nursing exam-style questions with rationales, exam mode, and progress tracki
The nurse counsels a client diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following menus?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Roast beef is high in heme iron, which is best absorbed and helps treat iron deficiency anemia. Choices B, C, and D do not contain significant sources of iron, especially heme iron, making them less effective in treating iron deficiency anemia.
Identifying the strengths and weaknesses in the nursing care plan is part of which of the following steps in determining and fulfilling the patient's nursing care needs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Correct. Evaluation involves assessing the effectiveness of the nursing care plan by identifying its strengths and weaknesses. This step helps in determining if the plan is meeting the patient's needs. Choice B (Planning) is incorrect because planning involves developing the nursing care plan based on the assessment of the patient's needs. Choice C (Implementation) is incorrect as it refers to putting the nursing care plan into action. Choice D (Assessment) is incorrect as assessment is the initial step in the nursing process, involving data collection and analysis to identify the patient's needs.
The nurse instructs a client 5 days after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion about how to move from a supine position to standing at the left side of the bed with a walker. Which of the following directions by the nurse is BEST?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct method described in option C helps maintain spinal alignment while moving from a lying to a standing position, which is crucial after a lumbar laminectomy with spinal fusion. This technique minimizes strain on the back and promotes safe movement. Choices A, B, and D involve movements that could potentially strain the back, increase the risk of injury, or compromise the spinal alignment, making them less optimal for the client recovering from such surgery.
The hypertonicity of the muscles in an infant with cerebral palsy causes scissoring of the legs. The nurse teaches the mother that the preferred way to carry the infant is in a sitting position:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Carrying the infant astride one of her hips helps keep the legs apart and can help reduce muscle tightness. This position allows for better support and alignment, preventing further muscle contractures. Strapping the infant in an infant seat, wrapping tightly in a blanket, or using the football hold under the arm would not provide the same benefits and may even exacerbate muscle tightness in a child with cerebral palsy.
A client who is postpartum and diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia is receiving education from a nurse. Which dietary recommendation should be included in the education plan?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Spinach and beef. Spinach is a good source of non-heme iron, while beef provides heme iron, both essential for treating iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt and mozzarella (choice A) are not significant sources of iron. Fish and cottage cheese (choice C) do not provide as much iron as spinach and beef. Turkey slices and milk (choice D) are also not as rich in iron compared to spinach and beef.
For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
For a patient with a history of liver disease, a low-fat diet is most appropriate. Liver disease can impair fat metabolism, leading to fat accumulation in the liver cells and worsening the condition. A low-fat diet helps reduce stress on the liver and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein diets may not be suitable for individuals with liver disease as they can increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. High-carbohydrate diets may lead to insulin resistance and fat accumulation in the liver. While protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, a balanced intake of high-quality protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health, making a low-protein diet not the most appropriate choice for all patients with liver disease.
The nurse is teaching basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to individuals in the community. Which is the order of basic CPR?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct order of basic CPR is to first ensure the scene is safe to approach, then assess responsiveness. Next, call for help and start CPR with chest compressions, followed by checking the airway and giving rescue breaths. Choice B is incorrect as giving rescue breaths is usually done after the initial chest compressions. Choice C is incorrect as looking, listening, and feeling for breathing comes after starting compressions. Choice D is incorrect as chest compressions are usually the first step in basic CPR.
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of training soldiers for survival on the battlefield?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Individual training. Individual training involves preparing soldiers for specific tasks like survival on the battlefield. Accountability (choice A) refers to being answerable for one's actions, not directly related to training soldiers. Personal/professional development (choice B) focuses on growth and advancement of individuals, not specific training for battlefield survival. Military appearance/physical condition (choice D) pertains to the physical attributes and presentation of soldiers, not directly related to training them for survival.
In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant and interferes with the action of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, which is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors in the blood. By interfering with vitamin K, warfarin decreases the production of these clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. This is why individuals on warfarin therapy need to monitor their vitamin K intake. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not directly interfere with platelets, calcium, or vitamin B12.
Why may patients with hiatal hernia develop anemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Gastritis may cause bleeding. In patients with hiatal hernia, gastritis can lead to gastrointestinal bleeding, resulting in anemia due to blood loss. Choice A is incorrect because hiatal hernia does not directly affect iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect as iron stores turning over more quickly is not a typical reason for anemia in hiatal hernia patients. Choice D is incorrect as an aversion to iron-rich foods does not directly cause anemia in this context.
When a field medical element is not operational, it engages in training to achieve readiness for mobilization that involves all aspects of operation. Individuals must be proficient in their MOS/ASI and which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the context of field medical training for mobilization, proficiency in common soldier tasks is essential. This includes skills like first aid, navigation, marksmanship, and other fundamental military tasks. While command and control procedures, communications, and automation are important, common soldier tasks are specifically mentioned in the scenario as critical for achieving readiness and mobilization.
The nurse has been assigned to train the unlicensed nursing assistant about prioritizing care. Which client should the nurse instruct the unlicensed nursing assistant to see first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A because removing sequential compression devices could increase the risk of thromboembolism, making it the priority. Choice B involves assisting with ambulation, which can be done after addressing the urgent need of the client in choice A. Choice C and D involve non-urgent tasks compared to the potential risks associated with not removing sequential compression devices promptly.
Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide to the client diagnosed with varicose veins who has received sclerotherapy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to instruct the client to walk 15 to 20 minutes three times a day. Walking helps improve circulation and reduces the risk of complications following sclerotherapy. Choice B, keeping the legs in the dependent position when sitting, is incorrect as it can increase venous pressure. Choice C, removing compression bandages before going to bed, is incorrect as compression should be maintained as per healthcare provider's instructions. Choice D, performing Berger-Allen exercises four times a day, is incorrect as these exercises may not be specifically recommended post-sclerotherapy.
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Recommend awards and promotions'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Accountability. The responsibility of 'Recommend awards and promotions' falls under the category of Accountability in personnel management. Accountability involves assessing and acknowledging the performance of individuals, which includes recommending awards and promotions based on merit and achievements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific task of recommending awards and promotions. Personal/professional development focuses on growth opportunities, individual training relates to skill development, and military appearance/physical condition pertains to different aspects of personnel management that are not directly associated with recommending awards and promotions.
A client is prescribed lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D: 'Dizziness' and 'Headache'. ACE inhibitors like lisinopril are known to cause these common side effects due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Choice A, 'Constipation', is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors. While constipation can be a side effect of some medications, it is not typically seen with ACE inhibitors. Therefore, options A and B are incorrect choices.
What causes hepatic encephalopathy?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by the buildup of ammonia in the body. Ammonia, a byproduct of protein metabolism, normally gets converted to urea in the liver for excretion. However, in liver dysfunction, such as cirrhosis, the liver cannot effectively convert ammonia to urea, leading to its accumulation in the body and subsequently causing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy.
A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. Flushing (choice A) is not a typical side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom of asthma but not a common side effect of albuterol. Hypotension (choice D) is low blood pressure, which is not a common side effect associated with albuterol use.
Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, if committed by a nurse, indicates an error?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When conducting a Clinitest for testing urinary glucose levels, it is essential to add the correct amounts of urine and Clinitest reagent as instructed. Adding more water than urine could dilute the sample, leading to inaccurate test results. It's important to follow the correct ratio of drops specified in the instructions for an accurate reading.
Which of the following is a potential side effect associated with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Stomach irritation and bleeding. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause stomach irritation and bleeding due to their effects on gastric mucosa. Stomatitis and esophagitis (Choice B) are not typically associated with NSAID use. While NSAIDs may affect renal function, leading to fluid retention and edema, they do not directly cause increased potassium excretion (Choice D). Impaired folate absorption (Choice C) is not a common side effect of NSAIDs.
The nurse is analyzing laboratory values for the assigned clients. Which finding, based on the client's medical history, indicates the need for immediate follow-up?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
An HbA1c of 7.0% in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates poor long-term glucose control, necessitating immediate follow-up. Elevated HbA1c levels suggest a higher average blood sugar over the past 2-3 months, increasing the risk of complications associated with diabetes. Choices A, C, and D do not require immediate follow-up based solely on the provided information. A serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL in a client with chronic kidney disease, a BNP of 140 pg/mL in a client with heart failure, and hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45% in a male client with anemia are within acceptable ranges or do not indicate an urgent need for intervention.
Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting midstream clean-catch urine specimen for urine analysis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The inappropriate action in collecting a midstream clean-catch urine specimen for urine analysis is to collect only 5 to 10 ml of urine. Adequate urine volume of 30 to 60 ml is required for accurate testing. Collecting a small amount like 5 to 10 ml may lead to inaccurate results due to insufficient sample size. It is crucial to follow proper collection techniques, such as discarding the first flow of urine, performing perineal care, and collecting an adequate volume, to ensure reliable test results.
The client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 is admitted to the hospital with cellulitis of the right foot secondary to an insect bite. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering intravenous antibiotics is the priority intervention in this scenario. Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that requires prompt treatment with antibiotics to prevent its spread and potential complications. While warm moist packs and elevation can be beneficial as adjunct measures, they are not the initial priority. Teaching about skin and foot care is important, but it can be addressed after stabilizing the acute condition with antibiotics.
Short-bowel syndrome usually occurs when:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Short-bowel syndrome usually occurs when more than 50% of the small intestine is surgically removed. This condition results in malabsorption of nutrients and fluids due to the reduced length of the small intestine. Choice A is incorrect because the contraction of longitudinal muscles does not lead to short-bowel syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as short-bowel syndrome is primarily related to the small intestine, not the large intestine. Choice D is incorrect since decreased transit time due to infection or drugs is not a direct cause of short-bowel syndrome.
What intervention should the nurse implement for the client who has an ileal conduit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with an ileal conduit is to report any decrease in urinary output to the healthcare provider. Decreased urinary output in these clients may indicate a blockage or another complication, which requires immediate attention. Monitoring the stoma for signs of infection (Choice D) is important but not the priority when compared to a decrease in urinary output. Pouching the stoma with a one-inch margin around it (Choice A) is incorrect as it does not address the issue of decreased urinary output. Referring the client to the United Ostomy Association (Choice B) is not necessary in this immediate situation where a potential complication is suspected.
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Educate soldiers in the history and traditions of the service'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B, 'Personal/professional development.' This category involves educating individuals in various aspects, including history and traditions. In this case, educating soldiers in the history and traditions of the service falls under personal/professional development rather than the other options provided. Choice A, 'Accountability,' focuses on responsibility and answerability, not education. Choice C, 'Individual training,' pertains more to specific skill development rather than broader education on history and traditions. Choice D, 'Military appearance/physical condition,' is related to maintaining physical standards and image, which is not directly relevant to educating soldiers in history and traditions.
A client with type 1 diabetes is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and initially treated with intravenous fluids followed by an IV bolus of regular insulin. The nurse anticipates that the practitioner will prescribe a continuous infusion of insulin of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Novolin R (Regular insulin). Regular insulin is used for continuous infusion to treat diabetic ketoacidosis due to its rapid onset of action. Novolin L (Intermediate-acting insulin) (choice A), Novolin N (Intermediate-acting insulin) (choice C), and Novolin U (Ultra-Long-acting insulin) (choice D) are not suitable for continuous infusion in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis.
A patient with hypothyroidism should be advised to consume more of which nutrient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Iodine. Iodine is essential for thyroid hormone production, and its deficiency can contribute to hypothyroidism. While calcium, vitamin C, and iron are important for overall health, they are not specifically related to thyroid function. Calcium is more associated with bone health, vitamin C with immune function, and iron with red blood cell production.
In supply and equipment management, what is the FIRST step in the procurement process?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
In the procurement process, the FIRST step is to establish requirements. This step involves identifying and defining the needs for supplies and equipment before moving forward with the procurement process. Keeping hand receipts up to date (Choice A) is a task related to tracking and managing inventory but comes after the requirements have been established. Requisitioning supplies and equipment (Choice C) and receiving, inspecting, and storing items (Choice D) are subsequent steps in the procurement process that follow after the requirements have been determined.
Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of fat because high-fat foods can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and indigestion. While proteins, sodium, and cholesterol may also need to be moderated for overall health, reducing fat intake is particularly crucial for managing gallbladder issues.
When assessing the integumentary system of a client with anorexia nervosa, which finding would support the diagnosis?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Dry, brittle hair is a common sign of malnutrition, often seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. In anorexia nervosa, the body lacks essential nutrients due to severe calorie restriction, leading to dryness and brittleness of the hair. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to directly indicate anorexia nervosa. Preoccupation with calories can be a behavioral symptom, thick body hair is not a typical finding associated with anorexia nervosa, and a sore tongue is more commonly related to nutritional deficiencies like vitamin deficiencies rather than anorexia nervosa.
Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'Decreased urine output.' Embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve can cause renal infarction, leading to a decrease in urine output. This complication is due to the obstruction of blood flow to the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because embolization from the mitral valve typically does not directly cause pulmonary embolism, hemoptysis, or deep vein thrombosis.
What type of diet is recommended for patients with diverticulitis during an acute flare-up?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is recommended. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and minimize irritation to the digestive tract, allowing the inflamed diverticula to heal. High-fiber foods are usually avoided during flare-ups as they can exacerbate symptoms. Low-fat and high-protein diets are not specifically recommended for diverticulitis flare-ups. Therefore, option B is the correct choice.
Which of the following is a primary factor that affects blood pressure?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Obesity is a primary factor that affects blood pressure. Excess body weight, especially when concentrated around the abdomen, can increase the risk of hypertension (high blood pressure) as it puts extra strain on the heart to pump blood around the body. This can lead to various cardiovascular complications and other health issues. Managing weight through a healthy diet and regular physical activity can help control blood pressure levels. Age, stress, and gender can also influence blood pressure, but obesity has a more direct and significant impact on increasing blood pressure levels compared to the other factors listed.
A patient with diabetes should be advised to avoid which type of carbohydrate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Simple carbohydrates. Simple carbohydrates can cause rapid spikes in blood glucose levels, which can be problematic for patients with diabetes. These carbohydrates are quickly broken down and absorbed by the body, leading to sharp increases in blood sugar levels. In contrast, complex carbohydrates and fiber-rich carbohydrates are generally better choices for individuals with diabetes because they are digested more slowly, resulting in a more gradual rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, complex carbohydrates, are a better option for diabetic patients compared to simple carbohydrates. Choice C, fiber-rich carbohydrates, can also be beneficial for individuals with diabetes as they help in regulating blood sugar levels. Choice D, all carbohydrates, is too broad of a statement as not all carbohydrates have the same impact on blood glucose levels.
When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position himself?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
When palpating the client's neck for lymphadenopathy, the nurse should position himself in front of a sitting client. This positioning allows for easier access to the neck area and better visualization of any swelling or abnormalities in the lymph nodes. Being in front of the client ensures proper alignment and comfort for both the nurse and the client during the assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because positioning at the client's back or sides would make it challenging to adequately palpate the neck area and assess for lymphadenopathy.
The nurse is preparing a teaching care plan for the client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for the nurse to include in the care plan for a client diagnosed with nephritic syndrome is to instruct the client to report any decrease in daily weight during treatment to the healthcare provider. A decrease in weight could indicate worsening of the nephritic syndrome or dehydration, making it crucial information for the healthcare provider to assess the client's condition. Option A is incorrect because discontinuing steroid therapy should be done under medical guidance rather than immediately if symptoms develop. Option B is incorrect because diuretics should not be taken without healthcare provider's guidance due to the risk of electrolyte imbalances. Option C is incorrect as increasing dietary sodium would exacerbate fluid retention, which is undesirable in nephritic syndrome.
Which intervention should the nurse implement for the client who has an ileal conduit?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct intervention for a client with an ileal conduit is to report to the healthcare provider any decrease in urinary output. A decrease in urinary output can be indicative of a blockage or other complication, necessitating immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because pouching the stoma with a margin around it is not directly related to managing complications. Choice B is incorrect as referring the client to an ostomy association may be beneficial for education but is not the immediate action needed for decreased urinary output. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring for infection, although important, is not the priority when dealing with a potential complication like decreased urinary output.
Who typically collects blood specimens?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nurses typically collect blood specimens from patients as part of their everyday duties in medical settings. They are trained in venipuncture techniques and are responsible for ensuring that blood samples are properly obtained and labeled for diagnostic testing. Medical technologists process and analyze the blood specimens in the laboratory under the direction of a physician. Physicians are not commonly involved in the direct collection of blood specimens. While phlebotomists are specialized professionals trained to draw blood, in many medical settings, nurses perform this task as part of their responsibilities.
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Recommend awards and promotions'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Accountability.' Accountability involves recommending awards and promotions as part of managing personnel. This responsibility revolves around assessing employee performance and recognizing achievements through awards and promotions. Choice B, 'Personal/professional development,' focuses on enhancing employees' skills and knowledge, not specifically related to recommending awards or promotions. Choice C, 'Individual training,' pertains to providing instruction and guidance to improve specific skills, not directly linked to awarding or promoting individuals. Choice D, 'Military appearance/physical condition,' deals with maintaining physical standards and presentation, unrelated to recommending awards and promotions.
The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is composed of a dental officer, dental specialist, x-ray specialist, laboratory specialist, and needed equipment?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, the Dental squad. This squad is specifically composed of a dental officer, dental specialist, x-ray specialist, laboratory specialist, and necessary equipment. The other choices, A, B, and C, do not include the specific group of specialists mentioned in the question. Therefore, they are incorrect. The Treatment squad may involve a broader range of medical professionals, while the Area support squad and Medical service squad focus on different aspects of healthcare support not related to the dental field.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic areas of concern into which practical nurse management responsibilities can be categorized?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: 'Managing patients' legal affairs.' Practical nurse management responsibilities are typically categorized into managing work center operations, managing personnel, and overseeing patient care. Legal affairs management is not a standard responsibility for practical nurse management. Choice B is incorrect as it introduces information about the hypothalamus, which is unrelated to the question. Choice C and D are both common areas of concern in practical nurse management, involving the operations of the work center and managing personnel, respectively.
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Educate soldiers in the history and traditions of the service'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The appropriate category for the task 'Educate soldiers in the history and traditions of the service' is 'Personal/professional development.' This category involves educating individuals in various aspects, including history and traditions, to enhance their overall growth and knowledge. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 'Accountability' focuses on responsibility and answerability, 'Individual training' refers to specific skill development, and 'Military appearance/physical condition' pertains to physical fitness and presentation, none of which directly align with educating soldiers in history and traditions.
In patients with heart failure, which type of diet is most recommended?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
A low-sodium diet is most recommended for patients with heart failure. This type of diet helps manage fluid retention by reducing the amount of sodium in the body, which in turn decreases the workload on the heart. High-sodium diets can lead to fluid retention and worsen heart failure symptoms. High-fat and low-carbohydrate diets are not specifically recommended for heart failure patients as the focus is primarily on controlling sodium intake.
The nurse is preparing a postoperative nursing care plan for the client recovering from a hemorrhoidectomy. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Establishing rapport with the client is essential in postoperative care to create a trusting relationship, decrease embarrassment, and improve the client's comfort during assessments. Choice B is incorrect because the lithotomy position is not typically recommended post-hemorrhoidectomy. Choice C is incorrect because milking the tube inserted during surgery is not a standard practice after a hemorrhoidectomy. Choice D is incorrect as digitally dilating the rectal sphincter can cause harm and is not a part of routine post-hemorrhoidectomy care.
The client with chronic alcoholism has chronic pancreatitis and hypomagnesemia. What should the nurse assess when administering magnesium sulfate to the client?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Deep tendon reflexes. When administering magnesium sulfate to a client with chronic alcoholism, chronic pancreatitis, and hypomagnesemia, the nurse should assess deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system and decrease deep tendon reflexes, so monitoring them is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the assessment needed when administering magnesium sulfate in this scenario. Arterial blood gases are not typically assessed specifically for magnesium sulfate administration; skin turgor and capillary refill time are more related to hydration status and perfusion, respectively.
Which of the following grains is acceptable for someone with celiac disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A, Rice. Rice is a gluten-free grain and is safe for individuals with celiac disease. Rye, wheat, and barley contain gluten, which can trigger adverse reactions in individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect for someone with this condition.
Which drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are known to contribute to the development of peptic ulcers by affecting the protective lining of the stomach and increasing stomach acid production. This can lead to irritation and ulcer formation. Antacids are actually used to relieve symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Certain antibiotics may be prescribed to treat H. pylori infection, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Cholesterol-lowering medications are not typically associated with causing peptic ulcers.
The nurse is planning to provide education about foods containing thiamine to a group of clients. Which food high in thiamine should the nurse include?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Pork. Pork is high in thiamine, which is important for preventing thiamine deficiency. Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, is essential for the proper functioning of the nervous system and metabolism. While fish, beef, and eggs are nutritious foods, they are not as high in thiamine as pork. Fish is more commonly known for its omega-3 fatty acids, beef for its iron content, and eggs for being a good source of protein and other nutrients.
A true statement about medications is that:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. This statement is true because both prescription and over-the-counter medications, as well as herbal remedies, can interact with food. Choice A is incorrect because over-the-counter medications can also interact with food or nutrients. Choice B is incorrect as not all prescription medications have significant interactions with food. Choice D is incorrect because natural herbal products can also have side effects and interactions with other substances.
Which of the following is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives additional training in providing care beyond basic first aid procedures?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Combat lifesaver. A Combat Lifesaver is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives specialized training in advanced first aid procedures, beyond basic first aid care. This training equips them to provide crucial medical assistance in emergency situations where immediate medical personnel may not be available. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically refer to nonmedical members trained in advanced first aid care beyond basic procedures.
Are M6 practical nurses utilized in field units with patient holding capabilities?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Yes, M6 practical nurses are utilized in field units with patient holding capabilities. These nurses play a crucial role in providing care and support in various healthcare settings. Given this context, the correct answer is 'Yes.' Choice B, 'No,' is incorrect because M6 practical nurses can indeed work in field units with patient holding capabilities, as stated in the extract. Choices C and D are not applicable in this question.
Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Corrected Rationale: Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by personnel ranked E6, E7, or E8 in the military structure. These individuals have the necessary experience and leadership skills to fulfill the responsibilities associated with these roles. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because these positions are not specifically designated for Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 personnel in the military hierarchy.
Participating in the development of long-term and preventive health goals with the patient and their family is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Planning. Planning in nursing care involves setting long-term and preventive goals for the patient in collaboration with the patient and their family. This step ensures that a comprehensive and individualized care plan is developed. Choice A, Evaluation, comes after the interventions have been implemented to assess their effectiveness. Choice C, Implementation, is the step where the care plan is put into action. Choice D, Assessment, is the initial step that involves collecting data to identify the patient's needs, which is done before planning the care.
For which client situation would a consultation with a rapid response team (RRT) be most appropriate?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. This client situation presents with concerning clinical signs such as no urine output post kidney transplant, elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypotension, and restlessness, suggestive of acute renal failure and sepsis. These signs necessitate immediate intervention by the rapid response team (RRT) to address the potentially life-threatening conditions. Choice B is incorrect as the client is stable after chest tube removal and primarily anxious about going home. Choice C is incorrect as the client's symptoms are related to postoperative recovery and boredom, not indicating an urgent need for RRT consultation. Choice D is incorrect as the client post hip repair is stable, alert, and interacting normally, without signs of acute deterioration requiring RRT involvement.
The client has recently been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which intervention should the nurse teach the client to reduce symptoms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Decreasing the intake of flatus-forming foods can help reduce symptoms of bloating and discomfort in IBS. This intervention focuses on dietary modifications that can positively impact the client's condition. Instructing the client to avoid drinking fluids with meals (choice A) may not directly address the underlying cause of IBS symptoms. Teaching perianal care (choice C) is important for hygiene but does not directly address IBS symptoms. Encouraging the client to see a psychologist (choice D) may be beneficial for managing stress or anxiety associated with IBS but does not directly target symptom reduction through dietary changes.
A client who _____ diet requires _____ amounts of vitamin C.
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clients who smoke require more vitamin C due to increased oxidative stress and depletion of vitamin C. Smoking leads to higher levels of oxidative stress in the body, which in turn increases the utilization of vitamin C to counteract the damage caused by free radicals. Choices A, C, and D do not directly impact the body's need for vitamin C as smoking does.
Which vitamin deficiency is commonly associated with prolonged antibiotic use?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is Vitamin K. Prolonged antibiotic use can disrupt the gut flora, which is responsible for synthesizing Vitamin K. This disruption can lead to a Vitamin K deficiency and an increased risk of bleeding. Vitamin A, B6, and C deficiencies are not typically associated with prolonged antibiotic use.
The Army Medical Department has four major functions. Three are prevention, treatment, and evacuation. What is the fourth?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C, 'Mobilization.' Mobilization is the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department. This involves preparing and organizing medical resources and personnel for deployment during military operations. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important aspects in military healthcare, they do not represent the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department as specifically requested in the question.
The client has recently been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which intervention should the nurse teach the client to reduce symptoms?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Choosing option B, explaining the need to decrease intake of flatus-forming foods, is the correct intervention to reduce IBS symptoms. Flatus-forming foods can worsen bloating and discomfort in individuals with IBS. Option A, instructing the client to avoid drinking fluids with meals, may be helpful for other conditions but is not a primary intervention for IBS. Option C, teaching perianal care, is not directly related to reducing IBS symptoms. Option D, encouraging the client to see a psychologist, may be beneficial for managing stress related to IBS but is not the initial intervention to reduce symptoms.
Which corps-level hospital is a 296-bed facility that is staffed and equipped to provide care for all categories of patients?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is GH (General Hospital), a 296-bed facility that offers care for all categories of patients. FSB, CSH, and FH do not typically refer to hospitals at the corps level and are not specifically known for providing comprehensive care.
The client diagnosed with thalassemia, a hereditary anemia, is to receive a transfusion of packed RBCs. The cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. Which precaution should the nurse implement when initiating the transfusion?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Starting the transfusion slowly at 10-15 mL per hour for 15-30 minutes is the correct precaution to implement when the cross-match reveals the presence of antibodies that cannot be cross-matched. This allows the nurse to monitor for any adverse reactions due to the presence of antibodies. Re-crossmatching the blood until the antibodies are identified is not practical and may delay the transfusion, potentially compromising the patient's condition. Having the client sign a permit to receive uncrossmatched blood is not the best course of action as the focus should be on ensuring a safe transfusion. Having an unlicensed nursing assistant stay with the client does not address the specific precaution needed to manage a transfusion in the presence of antibodies.
The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Clinical dietitians and pharmacists are the key members of the healthcare team responsible for monitoring drug-nutrient interactions. Clinical dietitians assess patients' nutritional needs and develop appropriate diets that consider medication effects, while pharmacists provide expertise on medications and their interactions with nutrients. Physicians and nurses are essential healthcare providers but typically do not have the specialized knowledge required to manage drug-nutrient interactions, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.
Three major causes of atherosclerosis are:
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Atherosclerosis is primarily caused by high blood cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking. These factors contribute to the buildup of plaque in the arteries. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperthyroidism, underweight, and poor appetite do not directly cause atherosclerosis. Similarly, constipation, peptic ulcer disease, pancreatitis, kidney failure, edema, and sodium retention are not among the primary causes of atherosclerosis.
The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Forward Surgical Team (FST). The FST is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses. This specialized team is designed to provide immediate surgical care close to the frontline. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the specific composition of personnel described in the question.
The system used at the division level and forward is comprised of six basic modules. Which module is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Forward Surgical Team (FST). The FST is indeed staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses. This team is specifically trained and equipped to provide surgical intervention in austere environments where immediate medical care is needed. Choices A, B, and C do not match the personnel composition described in the question, making them incorrect. The Treatment squad typically focuses on patient care and recovery, the Area support squad provides logistical and administrative support, and the Medical service squad deals with broader medical services beyond surgical interventions.
Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels in the body. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite, indicating high potassium levels. Hypercalcemia (choice B) refers to elevated calcium levels, not typically associated with diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (choice C) is low magnesium levels and can also be a consequence of diuretic use, but potassium imbalance is more common.
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'Listening and responding to soldiers' suggestions and complaints'?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is A: Accountability. Accountability in personnel management involves being responsible for one's actions and decisions. Part of being accountable includes listening to and addressing soldiers' suggestions and complaints. This helps in fostering a positive work environment and improving communication within the team. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while personal/professional development, individual training, and military appearance/physical condition are important aspects of personnel management, they do not directly relate to the specific task of listening and responding to soldiers' suggestions and complaints.
What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.
The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: The adrenal medulla. Norepinephrine is secreted by the adrenal medulla and is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response. The pancreas (choice A) secretes insulin and glucagon, not norepinephrine. The adrenal cortex (choice B) secretes hormones like cortisol and aldosterone, but not norepinephrine. The anterior pituitary gland (choice D) secretes various hormones like growth hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone, but not norepinephrine.
How do the automated data processing systems in the medical C4I headquarters aid in various aspects?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The automated data processing systems in the medical C4I headquarters play a crucial role in maintaining patient accountability by tracking patient movement and aiding in the management of health service logistics systems. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Option A is incorrect because the systems do more than just maintaining patient accountability. Option B is incorrect as it focuses solely on tracking patient movement, missing the broader scope. Option C is also incorrect as it only addresses the management of health service logistics systems and overlooks the other functionalities provided by the systems.
The client is diagnosed with hereditary spherocytosis. Which treatment/procedure would the nurse prepare the client to receive?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B: Splenectomy. Splenectomy is the treatment of choice for hereditary spherocytosis as it helps prevent hemolysis and improve anemia. Removing the spleen reduces the destruction of the abnormal red blood cells. Choice A, Bone marrow transplant, is not a standard treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Choice C, Frequent blood transfusions, may be used to manage anemia in some cases but is not the primary treatment for hereditary spherocytosis. Choice D, Liver biopsy, is not a treatment for hereditary spherocytosis; it is a procedure used to diagnose liver conditions, not related to this hematologic disorder.
The nurse on the medical/surgical unit cares for a client with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The nursing assessment of the client's neurological status should include which of the following? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D' because assessing grasp strength (choice B) and orientation to person, place, and time (choice C) are crucial components of a neurological assessment following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Pulse assessment in all four extremities (choice A) is not directly related to a neurological assessment and is more pertinent to vascular status. Therefore, choices A and D are incorrect in this context.
A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client's questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client's history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A (More than 30 years of age) is not a direct contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B (Had two multiple pregnancies) is not a factor that contraindicates the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D (Has a history of borderline hypertension) is not a specific contraindication for oral contraceptives unless it is severe or uncontrolled hypertension.
During the admission interview, which question should the nurse ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct question for the nurse to ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease during the admission interview is about any problems experienced during sexual intercourse. Aorto-iliac disease can lead to impaired blood flow to the pelvis and lower extremities, affecting sexual function. Therefore, it is essential to assess the client's sexual health in such cases. The other options, such as sitting for long periods of time, bowel movements and urination frequency, and throbbing sensation when lying down, are not directly related to the potential impact of aorto-iliac disease on sexual function. Hence, they are not the most pertinent questions to ask during the admission interview.
What instructions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud's phenomenon?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure. This instruction is crucial for managing Raynaud's phenomenon as it helps prevent vasospasms triggered by cold temperatures. Choice A is incorrect because exacerbations can occur in any season. Choice B is not directly related to managing Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice D is also irrelevant as direct sunlight exposure does not typically worsen symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon.
A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client's questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client's history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B is incorrect as having multiple pregnancies is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice D is incorrect as borderline hypertension is not a strict contraindication for oral contraceptives.
The client with peripheral venous disease is scheduled to go to the whirlpool for a dressing change. Which is the nurse's priority intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Pain management is essential before the procedure to ensure the client's comfort and cooperation during the dressing change. Escorting the client to the physical therapy department (choice A) is not the priority at this time. While obtaining sterile dressing supplies (choice C) is important, ensuring pain management takes precedence. Assisting the client to the bathroom (choice D) is not directly related to the priority intervention of pain management before the whirlpool treatment.
The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip prior to initiating Coumadin could leave the patient without anticoagulation coverage during the period when warfarin's effects are not yet established. Checking the client's INR prior to beginning Coumadin is important but not the immediate action to take when both medications are ordered together. Clarifying the order with the health care provider is unnecessary in this scenario as it is common practice to give heparin and warfarin concurrently in the transition period.
The nurse supervises care of a client who is receiving enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. Warming the formula to room temperature is essential to prevent discomfort and complications. Aspirating and measuring the gastric aspirate is not a recommended nursing action for monitoring enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube, as it can introduce the risk of introducing contaminants into the feeding tube. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect, making choice D the correct answer.
The nurse writes a problem of "potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation" for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (Choice A) is not directly related to monitoring for ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (Choice C) is not relevant to monitoring for this specific complication. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (Choice D) is important, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for monitoring ovarian hyperstimulation.
The nurse on the medical/surgical unit cares for a client with a diagnosis of cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The nursing assessment of the client's neurological status should include which of the following? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 'D' because assessing grasp strength (choice B) and orientation to person, place, and time (choice C) are crucial components of a neurological assessment following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Pulse assessment in all four extremities (choice A) is not directly related to a neurological assessment and is more pertinent to vascular status. Therefore, choices A and D are incorrect in this context.
A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client's questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client's history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A (More than 30 years of age) is not a direct contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B (Had two multiple pregnancies) is not a factor that contraindicates the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D (Has a history of borderline hypertension) is not a specific contraindication for oral contraceptives unless it is severe or uncontrolled hypertension.
During the admission interview, which question should the nurse ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct question for the nurse to ask the male client diagnosed with aorto-iliac disease during the admission interview is about any problems experienced during sexual intercourse. Aorto-iliac disease can lead to impaired blood flow to the pelvis and lower extremities, affecting sexual function. Therefore, it is essential to assess the client's sexual health in such cases. The other options, such as sitting for long periods of time, bowel movements and urination frequency, and throbbing sensation when lying down, are not directly related to the potential impact of aorto-iliac disease on sexual function. Hence, they are not the most pertinent questions to ask during the admission interview.
What instructions should the nurse discuss with the client diagnosed with Raynaud's phenomenon?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is to wear extra warm clothing during cold exposure. This instruction is crucial for managing Raynaud's phenomenon as it helps prevent vasospasms triggered by cold temperatures. Choice A is incorrect because exacerbations can occur in any season. Choice B is not directly related to managing Raynaud's phenomenon. Choice D is also irrelevant as direct sunlight exposure does not typically worsen symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon.
A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client's questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client's history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A is incorrect as age alone is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B is incorrect as having multiple pregnancies is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice D is incorrect as borderline hypertension is not a strict contraindication for oral contraceptives.
The client with peripheral venous disease is scheduled to go to the whirlpool for a dressing change. Which is the nurse's priority intervention?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Pain management is essential before the procedure to ensure the client's comfort and cooperation during the dressing change. Escorting the client to the physical therapy department (choice A) is not the priority at this time. While obtaining sterile dressing supplies (choice C) is important, ensuring pain management takes precedence. Assisting the client to the bathroom (choice D) is not directly related to the priority intervention of pain management before the whirlpool treatment.
The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip prior to initiating Coumadin could leave the patient without anticoagulation coverage during the period when warfarin's effects are not yet established. Checking the client's INR prior to beginning Coumadin is important but not the immediate action to take when both medications are ordered together. Clarifying the order with the health care provider is unnecessary in this scenario as it is common practice to give heparin and warfarin concurrently in the transition period.
The nurse supervises care of a client who is receiving enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. Warming the formula to room temperature is essential to prevent discomfort and complications. Aspirating and measuring the gastric aspirate is not a recommended nursing action for monitoring enteral feeding via a nasogastric tube, as it can introduce the risk of introducing contaminants into the feeding tube. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect, making choice D the correct answer.
The nurse writes a problem of "potential for complication related to ovarian hyperstimulation" for a client who is taking clomiphene (Clomid), an ovarian stimulant. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Select the best answer.
Explanation:
Frequent pelvic sonograms help monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation, a serious potential side effect of clomiphene. Instructing the client to delay intercourse until menses (Choice A) is not directly related to monitoring for ovarian hyperstimulation. Explaining the duration of infusion therapy (Choice C) is not relevant to monitoring for this specific complication. Discussing the risk of ectopic pregnancy (Choice D) is important, but it is not the most appropriate intervention for monitoring ovarian hyperstimulation.
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