ati rn custom exams set 5 ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5 - Nursing Elites
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

1. What is the COMMZ level hospital whose principal mission is to treat and rehabilitate those patients who can return to duty within the stated theater evacuation policy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, GH (General Hospital), as it is the COMMZ level hospital that focuses on treating and rehabilitating patients who can return to duty within the theater evacuation policy. FSB (Forward Surgical Hospital) primarily provides surgical care close to the front lines. CSH (Combat Support Hospital) offers more comprehensive surgical and medical care than FSB but does not focus on rehabilitation like GH. FH (Field Hospital) provides initial medical care and stabilization before patients are evacuated to higher-level facilities.

2. The nurse is aware that norepinephrine is secreted by which endocrine gland?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The adrenal medulla. Norepinephrine is secreted by the adrenal medulla and is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response. The pancreas (choice A) secretes insulin and glucagon, not norepinephrine. The adrenal cortex (choice B) secretes hormones like cortisol and aldosterone, but not norepinephrine. The anterior pituitary gland (choice D) secretes various hormones like growth hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone, but not norepinephrine.

3. Which referral would be most appropriate for the client diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in helping clients with conditions like thoracic outlet syndrome by providing exercises, adaptations, and strategies to improve function and reduce symptoms. Choice A, the physical therapist, may also be involved in treatment, but occupational therapists focus more on functional activities for daily living affected by the condition. Choices B and D are not the most appropriate referrals for thoracic outlet syndrome as they do not directly address the functional limitations associated with this condition.

4. Which drugs contribute to peptic ulcers?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are known to contribute to the development of peptic ulcers by affecting the protective lining of the stomach and increasing stomach acid production. This can lead to irritation and ulcer formation. Antacids are actually used to relieve symptoms of peptic ulcers by neutralizing stomach acid. Certain antibiotics may be prescribed to treat H. pylori infection, a common cause of peptic ulcers. Cholesterol-lowering medications are not typically associated with causing peptic ulcers.

5. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

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